WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Questions and Answers

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2023

1. Who of the following is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council ?

(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) Union Minister of Water Resources
(C) Union Minister of Agriculture
(D) Union Minister of Earth Sciences

Answer: (A) Prime Minister of India

Explanation: The National Water Resources Council is India’s apex body for reviewing water resource policy and development, set up in 1983. Because it coordinates across states and the Centre, it is chaired by the Prime Minister, with Chief Ministers and relevant Union Ministers as members.

National Water Resources Council:

AspectDetail
Year established1983
ChairmanPrime Minister of India
MembersChief Ministers of all states, Administrators/Lt. Governors of UTs, Union Ministers concerned with water resources
Nodal MinistryMinistry of Jal Shakti (Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation)
Main functionReview and guide development/utilisation of water resources; formulate and revise National Water Policy
National Water Policy adoptedFirst in 1987; revised in 2002 and 2012
Nature of bodyAdvisory, apex coordinating body (not constitutional or statutory)
Related bodyNational Water Board (technical wing, headed by Secretary, Jal Shakti)

2. Which of the following amendment bills exempted the State of Bihar from the obligation of having a Tribal Welfare Minister?

(A) 92nd
(B) 93rd
(C) 94th
(D) 95th

Answer: (C) 94th

Explanation: The 94th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2006 amended Article 164(1) of the Constitution. It exempted Bihar (along with Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, which had earlier been exempted at the time of their creation) from the mandatory requirement of having a Minister for Tribal Welfare, since Bihar’s tribal population had significantly reduced after the creation of Jharkhand.

94th Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year2006
Article amendedArticle 164(1)
Original provisionStates of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha must have a Minister in charge of Tribal Welfare (may also be in charge of SC/backward classes welfare)
Change madeRemoved Bihar’s name from the list of states mandatorily requiring a Tribal Welfare Minister
ReasonAfter Jharkhand’s creation (2000), Bihar’s tribal population fell sharply
States still covered under Article 164(1)Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha
Related earlier reorganisationBihar Reorganisation Act, 2000 created Jharkhand

3. In which year, Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed to examine the working of the Community Development Programme?

(A) 1951
(B) 1954
(C) 1957
(D) 1960

Answer: (C) 1957

Explanation: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (launched 1952) and the National Extension Service (launched 1953), and to suggest measures for their better implementation. Its 1957 report recommended a three-tier system of local self-government — Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad — laying the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system in India.

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee:

AspectDetail
Year appointed1957
ChairmanBalwant Rai Mehta
PurposeExamine working of Community Development Programme (1952) and National Extension Service (1953)
Report submittedNovember 1957
Key recommendationThree-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat (village), Panchayat Samiti (block), Zila Parishad (district)
First state to implementRajasthan (Nagaur district, 2 October 1959)
Second state to implementAndhra Pradesh (1959)
SignificanceLaid foundation of democratic decentralisation in India, later given constitutional status by the 73rd Amendment (1992)

4. Which committee recommended for the establishment of a State Finance Commission for the allocation of finances to the Panchayats?

(A) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(B) Dantwala Committee
(C) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(D) Gadgil Committee

Answer: (D) Gadgil Committee

Explanation: The Committee on Policy and Programmes, headed by V.N. Gadgil, explicitly recommended the mandatory establishment of a State Finance Commission to oversee and allocate finances properly to the Panchayats. It also recommended setting up a State Election Commission to handle independent local body elections. The comprehensive blueprint submitted by the Gadgil Committee served as the core foundation for drafting the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which officially institutionalized the State Finance Commission under Article 243-I.

  • L. M. Singhvi Committee (1986): Best known for strongly advocating to give Constitutional Status to Panchayati Raj Institutions to shield them from frequent political subversion.
  • Hanumantha Rao Committee (1984): Primarily dealt with District Planning strategies and recommended separating planning processes from regular executive duties.
  • Dantwala Committee (1978): Focused entirely on administrative arrangements for Block-Level Planning.

5. The Government of India revoked the special status , or limited autonomy granted under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir — when?

(A) August, 2019
(B) September,2019
(C) October, 2019
(D) November, 2019

Answer: (A) August, 2019

Explanation: On 5 August 2019, the Government of India revoked the special status granted to Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370 of the Constitution through a Presidential Order (C.O. 272), and the state was subsequently reorganised into two Union Territories — Jammu & Kashmir, and Ladakh — under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.

Article 370 Revocation:

AspectDetail
Date of revocation5 August 2019
Mechanism usedPresidential Order (Constitution Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019 (C.O. 272)
Related Article also affectedArticle 35A (also rendered inoperative)
Legislative ActJammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019
Effective date of reorganisation31 October 2019
New entities formedUT of Jammu & Kashmir (with legislature), UT of Ladakh (without legislature)
Original nature of Article 370Granted temporary, transitional special autonomy to J&K, part of Part XXI (Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions)
Parliament resolutions passedStatutory Resolution + J&K Reorganisation Bill passed in Rajya Sabha (5 Aug) and Lok Sabha (6 Aug 2019)

6. Which committee recommended that there should also be reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions ?

(A) Thungon Committee
(B) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(C) G. V. K. Rao Committee
(D) Gadgil Committee

Answer: (A) Thungon Committee.

Explanation: The P. K. Thungon Committee (1988) explicitly recommended that there should be reservation of seats for women, as well as for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) based on population, across all three tiers of local governance. The committee’s recommendations formed the blueprint for the landmark 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which ultimately legalized a mandatory minimum of one-third (33%) reservation for women in Panchayats nationwide.

Gadgil Committee (1988): Mandated to draft the blueprint on how PRIs could be made effective. While it later supported reservations for women and SC/STs, the foundational question framework specifically rewards the Thungon Committee for initiating this recommendation within this specific MCQ format.

L. M. Singhvi Committee (1986): Primarily focused on providing constitutional recognition to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and revitalising the Gram Sabha.

G. V. K. Rao Committee (1985): Focused heavily on administrative arrangements and integrating rural development programs, but did not focus on women’s reservation.

7. The Union Public Service Commission submits its annual report on its work to

(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) The Parliament
(C) The President
(D) The Union Home Minister

Answer: (C) The President

Explanation: Under Article 323(1) of the Constitution, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is required to present an annual report on the work done by it to the President of India. The President then places this report, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken (or reasons for non-acceptance) on any recommendation, before both Houses of Parliament.

UPSC Annual Report:

AspectDetail
Relevant ArticleArticle 323(1)
Report submitted toPresident of India
Further actionPresident lays report before Parliament along with a memorandum of action taken
FrequencyAnnually
Similar provision for StatesState PSC report submitted to the Governor (Article 323(2))
Governing Part of ConstitutionPart XIV — Services under the Union and the States
Related bodyState Public Service Commissions report similarly to respective Governors

8. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central Law and a State Law is found in

(A) Article 156
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 300
(D) Entry 42, List III

Answer: (B) Article 254

Explanation: Article 254 of the Constitution deals with the “Inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and laws made by the Legislatures of States.” It lays down that when a law made by a State Legislature is repugnant to a law made by Parliament on a subject in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails and the State law is void to the extent of the repugnancy — unless the State law had received Presidential assent, in which case it prevails in that state, though Parliament can still override it later.

Article 254:

AspectDetail
SubjectRepugnancy between Central and State laws
Applies toLaws on subjects in the Concurrent List (List III, Seventh Schedule)
General ruleCentral law prevails; State law void to extent of repugnancy (Article 254(1))
ExceptionIf State law reserved for and received President’s assent, it prevails in that State (Article 254(2))
Limitation on exceptionParliament can still enact a law adding to, amending, varying, or repealing the State law later
Related provisionEntry 42, List III deals with a different subject (Inter-State disputes over water) — not repugnancy
Related ArticleArticle 251 — similar principle for laws made under Articles 249 and 250

9. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj ?

(A) 243O
(B) 243
(C) 243A
(D) 243I

Answer: (B) 243

Explanation: Articles 243 to 243-O outline the entire framework of the Panchayati Raj system, but Article 243 specifically provides the definitions. Article 243 contains the definitions for terms used in Part IX of the Constitution, including “Gram Sabha,” “Panchayat,” “Panchayat area,” “Intermediate level,” and “District level”. It was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 to formalize local self-government in rural areas.

Part IX of the Constitution — Panchayats:

ArticleSubject
Article 243Definitions (e.g. “Panchayat”, “village”, “intermediate level”)
Article 243AGram Sabha
Article 243BConstitution of Panchayats
Article 243CComposition of Panchayats
Article 243DReservation of seats
Article 243EDuration of Panchayats
Article 243GPowers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
Article 243HPowers to impose taxes and funds
Article 243IConstitution of State Finance Commission
Article 243KElections to Panchayats (State Election Commission)
Article 243OBar to interference by courts in electoral matters
AmendmentInserted by 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992

10. Article 227 of the Indian Constitution deals with

(A) High Court’s power of superintendence
(B) judicial review
(C) powers of the Speaker
(D) election of the Vice-President

Answer: (A) High Court’s power of superintendence

Explanation: Article 227 of the Constitution vests every High Court with the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning within its territorial jurisdiction (except courts/tribunals dealing with the armed forces). This power is both administrative and judicial in nature, allowing the High Court to call for returns, make rules for practice and proceedings, and ensure subordinate courts function within the bounds of law.

Article 227:

AspectDetail
SubjectPower of superintendence over courts
Vested inEvery High Court, over all courts/tribunals in its territorial jurisdiction
ExceptionCourts/tribunals constituted under laws relating to the armed forces
Nature of powerBoth administrative and judicial superintendence
Related powerHigh Court may call for returns from such courts, make/prescribe rules of practice
Distinguishing ArticleArticle 226 — power to issue writs (different from supervisory power under 227)
Landmark caseWaryam Singh v. Amarnath (1954) — scope of superintendence clarified
OriginDerived from Section 224 of the Government of India Act, 1935

11. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board has been established under which Ministry?

(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(D) Ministry of External Affairs

Answer: (C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Explanation: The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in 2003 under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to hear appeals against decisions of the Registrar under the Trade Marks Act and later the Patents Act, among other IP-related laws. It functioned as a specialised appellate tribunal for intellectual property disputes until it was abolished in 2021, with its functions transferred to High Courts and commercial courts.

Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB):

AspectDetail
Established2003
Administering MinistryMinistry of Commerce and Industry
Initial jurisdictionTrade Marks Act, 1999
Later jurisdiction addedPatents Act, 1970; Geographical Indications Act; Copyright Act; Plant Varieties Protection Act
HeadquartersChennai
Abolished2021, via the Tribunals Reforms (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance/Act, 2021
Functions transferred toHigh Courts and Commercial Courts
Nature of bodyQuasi-judicial appellate tribunal

12. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336 ?

(A) Sikh Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Hindu Community
(D) Anglo-Indian Community

Answer: (D) Anglo-Indian Community

Explanation: Article 336 of the Constitution provides special provisions for the Anglo-Indian community with respect to Central Services. It states that Anglo-Indians would continue to have a reasonable representation in posts in the railway, customs, postal and telegraph services under the Union, on the same basis as prevailed before independence, for a specified transitional period.

Article 336:

AspectDetail
Community coveredAnglo-Indian community
Services coveredRailway, Customs, Postal and Telegraph services under the Union
Nature of provisionReservation/reasonable representation in these services
BasisSame basis as existed before 15 August 1947
Location in ConstitutionPart XVI — Special Provisions relating to certain classes
Related ArticleArticle 331 — reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in Lok Sabha (by nomination, if inadequately represented)
Related Article (State)Article 333 — nomination of Anglo-Indian to State Legislative Assemblies
Current statusReservation provisions for Anglo-Indians in legislatures lapsed after the 104th Amendment Act, 2019

13. Which of the Articles deals with the grants in aid by the Union Government to the States ?

(A) Article 270
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 275
(D) Article 265

Answer: (C) Article 275

Explanation: Article 275 of the Constitution provides for statutory grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India to such states as Parliament determines to be in need of assistance, with different sums fixed for different states. It also includes specific provision for grants to promote the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and to raise the level of administration of Scheduled Areas. These grants are given on the recommendation of the Finance Commission and are distinct from the discretionary grants under Article 282.

Article 275:

AspectDetail
SubjectStatutory grants-in-aid from Union to States
Source of fundConsolidated Fund of India
Determining authorityParliament, generally on recommendation of the Finance Commission
Special grants includedFor welfare of Scheduled Tribes; administration of Scheduled Areas (esp. Assam)
NatureStatutory, need-based grants (unlike Article 282’s discretionary grants)
Related ArticleArticle 280 — establishes the Finance Commission, which recommends these grants
Related ArticleArticle 282 — discretionary grants for any public purpose, by Union or State
Related ArticleArticle 270 — deals with distribution of taxes between Union and States

14. In India, political parties are given recognition by

(A) Election Commission
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) Law Commission

Answer: (A) Election Commission

Explanation: In India, political parties are registered and granted recognition (as National or State parties) by the Election Commission of India under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, and registration is done under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Recognition status determines eligibility for reserved symbols and other privileges during elections.

Recognition of Political Parties:

AspectDetail
AuthorityElection Commission of India
Registration governed bySection 29A, Representation of the People Act, 1951
Symbol allotment governed byElection Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968
CategoriesNational Party, State Party, Registered Unrecognised Party
National party criteria (any one)Wins 2% of Lok Sabha seats from ≥3 states; or 6% vote share in 4 states + 4 Lok Sabha seats; or recognised as State party in 4+ states
State party criteria6% vote share + 2 seats in state assembly, or other prescribed thresholds
Nature of ECI hereQuasi-judicial function while deciding disputes on party symbols/recognition
Related bodyRegistrar of political parties function also performed by ECI

15. Which committee recommended Constitutional status to Panchayat ?

(A) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

Answer: (A) L.M. Singhvi Committee

Explanation: The L. M. Singhvi Committee, constituted in 1986 to examine the revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions, was the first to recommend that Panchayati Raj Institutions be given constitutional status, along with constitutionally mandated regular elections. This recommendation formed the basis for the subsequent 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which finally granted Panchayats constitutional recognition.

L. M. Singhvi Committee:

AspectDetail
Year1986
ChairmanL. M. Singhvi
Key recommendationConstitutional status for Panchayati Raj Institutions
Other recommendationsState Finance Commission; Nyaya Panchayats; reservation of seats for women
Constitutional outcome73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
Related committee (not for constitutional status)Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) — recommended three-tier system, not constitutional status
Related committeeAshok Mehta Committee (1977) — recommended two-tier system, also examined decentralisation
SignificanceFirst formal recommendation for constitutionalising local self-government in India

16. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures?

(A) Article 342
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 340
(D) Article 339

Answer: (C) Article 340

Explanation: Article 340 of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within India, the difficulties they face, and to make recommendations for their advancement, including grants-in-aid. This provision was used to appoint both the Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) and the Mandal Commission (1979) to identify Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Article 340:

AspectDetail
SubjectAppointment of Commission to investigate backward classes
Appointing authorityPresident of India
PurposeInvestigate conditions of socially/educationally backward classes; recommend steps for advancement
First Commission under this ArticleKaka Kalelkar Commission (1953)
Second Commission under this ArticleMandal Commission (1979), chaired by B. P. Mandal
Report follow-upReport + action taken memorandum laid before Parliament
Related ArticleArticle 338 — National Commission for SCs
Related ArticleArticle 338B — National Commission for Backward Classes (102nd Amendment, 2018)

17. The members of the Election Commission in the Centre are appointed by

(A) Vice-President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) President of India

Answer: (D) President of India

Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners of the Election Commission of India are appointed by the President of India. Traditionally this appointment was made on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 has since introduced a selection committee process for recommending names to the President.

Appointment of Election Commissioners:

AspectDetail
Relevant ArticleArticle 324(2)
Appointing authorityPresident of India
Composition of ECI1 Chief Election Commissioner + such number of Election Commissioners as President may fix
Tenure6 years or till age 65, whichever is earlier
Removal of CECSame manner as a Supreme Court Judge (Article 324(5))
Removal of other ECsOnly on recommendation of CEC
Recent legal changeCEC and Other ECs (Appointment…) Act, 2023 — selection committee: PM, Leader of Opposition (LoP), and a Union Cabinet Minister
Landmark caseAnoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) — led to the new appointment process

18. Which Article of Indian Constitution contains special provisions with regard to the State of Maharashtra ?

(A) 371
(B) 371 A
(C) 371 B
(D) 371 D

Answer: (A) 371

Explanation: Article 371 of the Constitution contains special provisions with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat. It empowers the President to provide, by order, for the constitution of separate development boards for regions like Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra (and Saurashtra and Kutch in Gujarat), for equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure and equitable arrangements for technical education and vocational training opportunities.

Article 371 Series:

ArticleState(s) CoveredKey Feature
371Maharashtra, GujaratSeparate development boards for backward regions (e.g. Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, Kutch)
371ANagalandProtection of Naga customary law, religious/social practices; land and resources
371BAssamSpecial committee of Assembly for tribal areas
371CManipurCommittee for Hill Areas
371DAndhra Pradesh/TelanganaEquitable opportunities in public employment and education
371FSikkimSpecial provisions post-merger with India
371GMizoramProtection of Mizo customary law and practices
371IGoa(Minimal special provisions, mainly re: Assembly size)

19. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST ?

(A) Article 337
(B) Article 334
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 339

Answer: (C) Article 338

Explanation: Article 338 of the Constitution provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, while Article 338A (inserted by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003) separately provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, bifurcating what was originally a combined commission. Prior to 2003, Article 338 itself covered a combined National Commission for SCs and STs.

National Commissions for SC/ST:

AspectDetail
Article for NCSCArticle 338
Article for NCSTArticle 338A (inserted by 89th Amendment Act, 2003)
Original positionSingle combined Commission for SCs and STs under Article 338 (before 2003)
StatusBoth are constitutional bodies
CompositionChairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and 3 other Members
PowersCivil court powers while investigating specific complaints (summoning, evidence, etc.)
Related ArticleArticle 338B — National Commission for Backward Classes (102nd Amendment, 2018)
ReportingAnnual reports presented to the President, laid before Parliament

20. The 100 th amendment in Indian Constitution provides

(A) protection of livelihood and regulation of street vending
(B) acquiring of territories by India and transfer of certain territories to Bangladesh
(C) emoluments, allowances and privileges to Governors
(D) reorganisation of the State of Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (B) acquiring of territories by India and transfer of certain territories to Bangladesh

Explanation: The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 gave effect to the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) between India and Bangladesh, under which India acquired certain territories from Bangladesh and transferred certain enclaves to Bangladesh, exchanging 111 Indian enclaves in Bangladesh for 51 Bangladeshi enclaves in India, along with adjustment of the land boundary.

100th Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year2015
SubjectIndia–Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) implementation
Original LBA signed1974 (Indira-Mujib Pact); protocol signed 2011
Indian enclaves transferred to Bangladesh111 enclaves
Bangladeshi enclaves transferred to India51 enclaves
States affectedAssam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, Tripura
Schedules amendedFirst Schedule (territories of states)
SignificanceResolved a decades-old border/enclave dispute between the two countries

21. As per Constitution of India, the Legislative Assembly of a State consists of not more than 500 and not less than 60 Members, but which one of the following states has 32 Members ?

(A) Delhi
(B) Sikkim
(C) Goa
(D) Puducherry

Answer: (B) Sikkim

Explanation: As per Article 170 of the Constitution of India, a State Legislative Assembly must have a maximum of 500 members and a minimum of 60 members. Because of small populations and smaller geographical regions, Parliament made special exceptions for specific states via constitutional amendments. Sikkim was granted an exception under Article 371F, fixing its Legislative Assembly size at 32 members.

Comparison of Legislative Seats for the Options:

State / UTNumber of Legislative Assembly Seats
Sikkim32 seats (Lowest among all full states)
Puducherry30 seats (+3 nominated by Central Govt)
Goa40 seats
Delhi70 seats

22. ‘ Doctrine of Pleasure ‘ was introduced in

(A) Article 317
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 310
(D) Article 318

Answer: (C) Article 310

Explanation: The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ is introduced under Article 310 of the Constitution, which states that members of the defence services, civil services of the Union, and All-India Services hold office “during the pleasure of the President,” while civil servants of a State hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. This means their tenure can, in principle, be terminated at any time without notice, subject to the procedural safeguards provided under Article 311.

Doctrine of Pleasure:

AspectDetail
ArticleArticle 310
Applies toMembers of Defence Services, Civil Services of the Union, All-India Services (President’s pleasure); State civil servants (Governor’s pleasure)
OriginDerived from English common law principle (“servants of the Crown hold office at pleasure”)
Limiting ArticleArticle 311 — provides procedural safeguards (reasonable opportunity of hearing) before dismissal/removal/reduction in rank
Exceptions to doctrineSupreme Court/High Court Judges, CAG, Chief Election Commissioner — not covered by “pleasure” doctrine
NatureNot absolute; subject to constitutional safeguards and judicial review
Related ArticleArticle 312 — All-India Services

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2022

1. Which committee recommended the 27% reservation of the OBCs in the government jobs in 1991?

(A) Jogendra Nath Mandal committee
(B) B. P. Mandal committee
(C) Dilip Singh Bhuria committee
(D) U. N. Debar committee

Answer: (B) B. P. Mandal committee

Explanation: The Mandal Commission (Second Backward Classes Commission), chaired by B. P. Mandal, was set up in 1979 and submitted its report in 1980, recommending 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in government jobs and educational institutions. This recommendation was implemented by the V. P. Singh government in 1990 and formally notified for government jobs in 1991, and later upheld (with the 50% ceiling and creamy layer exclusion) by the Supreme Court in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992).

Mandal Commission:

AspectDetail
Constituted1979, under Article 340
ChairmanB. P. Mandal
Report submitted1980
Key recommendation27% reservation for OBCs in central government jobs and public sector
ImplementationAnnounced by PM V.P. Singh, 1990; implemented 1991
Landmark case upholding itIndra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) — added creamy layer exclusion, capped total reservation at 50%
Related earlier CommissionKaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) — First Backward Classes Commission
Extended to education93rd Amendment Act, 2005 — OBC reservation in educational institutions

2. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age for 18 years for the Indian Citizen was made to become eligible to vote?

(A) 59th Amendment Act, 1988
(B) 60th Amendment Act, 1988
(C) 61st Amendment Act, 1989
(D) 62nd Amendment Act, 1989

Answer: (C) 61st Amendment Act, 1989

Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989 amended Article 326 of the Constitution to reduce the minimum voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years, significantly expanding the electorate, particularly among the youth.

61st Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year1989
Article amendedArticle 326
Change madeReduced voting age from 21 to 18 years
Applicable toElections to Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
EffectSignificant expansion of the electorate
Related ArticleArticle 326 — elections on basis of adult suffrage
Prime Minister at the timeRajiv Gandhi
Came into force1989 (ahead of the 1989 general elections)

3. Which Constitutional Amendment Act, provided reservation in admission in private unaided educational institutions for students belonging to scheduled castes/tribes and other backward classes?

(A) 92nd Amendment
(B) 93rd Amendment
(C) 94th Amendment
(D) 95th Amendment

Answer: (B) 93rd Amendment

Explanation: The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005 inserted Clause (5) into Article 15, empowering the State to make special provisions, including reservation, for socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs), SCs and STs in admissions to educational institutions — including private unaided institutions — except minority educational institutions protected under Article 30(1). This amendment enabled the subsequent Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006, which implemented 27% OBC reservation in central institutions.

93rd Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year2005
Article amendedArticle 15 (inserted Clause 5)
EffectEnables reservation for SEBCs/SC/ST in admissions to educational institutions, including private unaided ones
ExclusionMinority educational institutions under Article 30(1)
Follow-up legislationCentral Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006
Landmark caseAshoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (2008) — upheld amendment, excluded creamy layer
Related later amendment103rd Amendment Act, 2019 — added EWS reservation via Article 15(6)/16(6)
Related earlier provisionArticle 15(4) — added by 1st Amendment, 1951

4. Kaka Kalelkar Commission is related to

(A) The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(B) The National Scheduled Tribes Commission
(C) The Backward Class Commission
(D) The Anglo Indian community

Answer: (C) The Backward Class Commission

Explanation: The Kaka Kalelkar Commission, appointed in 1953 under Article 340, was India’s first Backward Classes Commission, chaired by Kaka Kalelkar. It was tasked with determining the criteria for identifying socially and educationally backward classes and recommending measures for their advancement. Although it submitted its report in 1955 identifying around 2,399 backward castes, its recommendations were largely not implemented due to internal disagreements, including reservations expressed by the Chairman himself.

Kaka Kalelkar Commission:

AspectDetail
Appointed1953, under Article 340
ChairmanKaka Kalelkar
Report submitted1955
PurposeIdentify socially and educationally backward classes
FindingsIdentified about 2,399 backward castes; 837 as “most backward”
OutcomeRecommendations largely not implemented; Chairman himself expressed reservations on caste-based criteria
Successor CommissionMandal Commission (1979), chaired by B. P. Mandal
SignificanceFirst Backward Classes Commission of independent India

5. Which schedule of the Constitution of India deals with administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as Scheduled Tribes ?

(A) Third Schedule
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Seventh Schedule
(D) Ninth Schedule

Answer: (B) Fifth Schedule

Explanation: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (which are covered under the Sixth Schedule instead). It empowers the Governor to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas and provides for a Tribes Advisory Council in each state with such areas.

Fifth Schedule:

AspectDetail
SubjectAdministration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
Applies toStates other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
Key bodyTribes Advisory Council (TAC) in each state with Scheduled Areas
Key authorityGovernor — submits annual reports to President on administration of Scheduled Areas
Related ArticleArticle 244(1)
Contrast — Sixth ScheduleDeals with administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram (Article 244(2))
Key featureGovernor can direct that a particular Act of Parliament/State Legislature not apply to a Scheduled Area
Related provisionPESA Act, 1996 — extends Panchayati Raj to Scheduled Areas under Fifth Schedule

6. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India every

(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years

Answer: (D) 5 years

Explanation: Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President is required to constitute a Finance Commission every five years, or earlier if considered necessary, to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, and among the States themselves, along with other matters referred to it.

Finance Commission:

AspectDetail
Constituting ArticleArticle 280
Constituted byPresident of India
FrequencyEvery 5 years, or earlier if necessary
CompositionChairman + 4 other members
First Finance CommissionConstituted 1951, chaired by K. C. Neogy
Current (as of recent years)15th Finance Commission, chaired by N. K. Singh (award period 2021-26)
Main functionRecommend distribution of tax proceeds between Union and States; principles governing grants-in-aid
Related ArticleArticle 275 — grants-in-aid recommended by Finance Commission

7. Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the Finance Commission appointed by President of India?

(A) 279
(B) 280
(C) 281
(D) 282

Answer: (B) 280

Explanation: Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission by the President of India, every five years or earlier as deemed necessary, to make recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, and on the principles governing grants-in-aid to States from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Article 280:

AspectDetail
SubjectConstitution of Finance Commission
Appointing authorityPresident of India
FrequencyEvery 5 years, or earlier if necessary
CompositionChairman + 4 other members (as prescribed by Parliament by law)
Main functionsDistribution of net tax proceeds between Union and States; grants-in-aid principles; measures to augment State/Panchayat/Municipality funds
Governing law for compositionFinance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951
Related ArticleArticle 275 — grants-in-aid based on FC recommendations
Related ArticleArticle 281 — FC report to be laid before Parliament

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2021

1. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?

(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (A) President

Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by the President of India. This applies uniformly to the Chairman as well as ordinary members of the Commission, who hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Appointment of UPSC Chairman:

AspectDetail
Relevant ArticleArticle 316
Appointing authorityPresident of India
Term of office6 years or till age 65, whichever is earlier
RemovalBy President, on grounds under Article 317 (misbehaviour, after Supreme Court inquiry)
Nature of bodyConstitutional body (Part XIV, Articles 315-323)
Related provisionState PSC Chairman/members appointed by the Governor (Article 316)
Related ArticleArticle 315 — establishment of Public Service Commissions for Union and States
Related ArticleArticle 323 — UPSC’s annual report submitted to the President

2. The 101st Amendment of the Indian Constitution is related to

(A) Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Maithili & Santhali were added in the Eighth Schedule.
(B) extend the reservation of seats for the SC & STs till 2020.
(C) Constitutional status granted to National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
(D) G.S.T.

Answer: (D) G.S.T.

Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 paved the way for the rollout of a comprehensive, nationwide indirect tax network (GST) in India, replacing multiple central and state taxes. It introduced crucial articles like Article 246A (giving states power to levy GST), Article 269A (levy and collection of IGST), and Article 279A (constitution of the GST Council).

  • This granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) by inserting Article 338B.
  • This amendment added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule, bringing the total number of official languages to 22.
  • This extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies until 2020.

3. Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General is mentioned in which Article?

(A) Article 137
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 98
(D) Article 150

Answer: (B) Article 149

Explanation: Article 149 of the Constitution deals with the duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States, and of any other authority or body as may be prescribed. It authorises Parliament to determine these duties and powers by law, and until such provision is made, the CAG exercises the duties and powers provided for by or under the Government of India Act, 1935.

Article 149:

AspectDetail
SubjectDuties and powers of the CAG
Governing lawCAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971
Related ArticleArticle 148 — establishment and appointment of CAG
Related ArticleArticle 150 — form of accounts of Union/States, prescribed by President on CAG’s advice
Related ArticleArticle 151 — CAG’s audit reports submitted to President/Governor, laid before Parliament/Legislature
Appointing authority (CAG)President of India
Tenure (CAG)6 years or till age 65, whichever is earlier
RemovalSame manner as a Supreme Court Judge

4. Which Article of the Constitution of India contains provisions for a National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

(A) Article 356
(B) Article 365
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 337

Answer: (C) Article 338

Explanation: Article 338 of the Constitution provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Originally (before the 89th Amendment Act, 2003) it provided for a combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes; after 2003, the STs got a separate commission under the newly inserted Article 338A, while Article 338 continued to cover the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

Article 338:

AspectDetail
SubjectNational Commission for Scheduled Castes
StatusConstitutional body
CompositionChairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and 3 other Members
PowersCivil court powers (summoning persons, examining evidence, etc.) while investigating specific complaints
Related ArticleArticle 338A — National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (added by 89th Amendment, 2003)
Related ArticleArticle 338B — National Commission for Backward Classes (added by 102nd Amendment, 2018)
ReportingAnnual report to the President, laid before Parliament with action-taken memorandum
Historical noteBefore 2003, Article 338 covered a combined Commission for SCs and STs

5. The Election Commission of India is a

(A) Constitutional body
(B) Statutory body
(C) Private body
(D) Government controlled body

Answer: (A) Constitutional body

Explanation: The Election Commission of India is a Constitutional body, established under Article 324 of the Constitution, which vests in it the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Being constitutionally created, its existence and core powers cannot be altered by ordinary legislation alone.

Election Commission of India:

AspectDetail
Constituting ArticleArticle 324
NatureConstitutional, permanent, independent body
Established25 January 1950 (celebrated as National Voters’ Day)
Original compositionSingle-member body until 1989
Current composition1 Chief Election Commissioner + 2 Election Commissioners
FunctionsSuperintendence, direction, control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, President, Vice-President
Related ArticleArticle 325 — no discrimination in electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
Related ArticleArticle 326 — elections based on adult suffrage

6. The Election Commission holds election for

(A) the Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the President and the Vice-President
(B) the Parliament, State Legislative Assemblies and the State Council
(C) the Parliament
(D) the Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies

Answer: (A) the Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the President and the Vice-President

Explanation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India is vested with the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, to the Legislature of every State, and to the offices of President and Vice-President. It does not conduct elections to local bodies (Panchayats/Municipalities), which fall under separate State Election Commissions established under Articles 243K and 243ZA.

Election Commission’s Jurisdiction:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 324
Elections conductedLok Sabha, Rajya Sabha (indirectly, via oversight), State Legislative Assemblies/Councils, offices of President and Vice-President
Not covered by ECIElections to Panchayats and Municipalities
Body for local body electionsState Election Commission (separate constitutional body under Article 243K)
Related ArticleArticle 325 — common electoral roll, no discrimination
Related ArticleArticle 326 — universal adult suffrage
Related ArticleArticle 327 — Parliament’s power to make provision for elections

7. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India ?

(A) Sukumar Sen
(B) T. N. Seshan
(C) Sushil Chandra
(D) Sunil Arora

Answer: (A) Sukumar Sen

Explanation: Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India, serving from 21 March 1950 to 19 December 1958. He is credited with successfully organising India’s first general elections (1951-52), a massive logistical exercise given the country’s size, diversity, and largely illiterate electorate at the time.

First Chief Election Commissioner:

AspectDetail
NameSukumar Sen
Tenure21 March 1950 – 19 December 1958
Key achievementConducted India’s first general elections (1951-52)
BackgroundIndian Civil Service (ICS) officer, former Chief Secretary of West Bengal
Later roleAlso supervised Sudan’s first elections after retirement
Successor CECK. V. K. Sundaram

8. Which Article mentions about the Finance Commission ?

(A) Article 245
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 290
(D) Article 280

Answer: (D) Article 280

Explanation: Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission by the President, every five years or earlier if necessary, to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid to the States.

Article 280:

AspectDetail
SubjectConstitution of Finance Commission
Appointing authorityPresident of India
FrequencyEvery 5 years, or earlier if necessary
CompositionChairman + 4 other members
Main functionsTax revenue distribution between Union/States; grants-in-aid principles; measures to augment State/local body funds
Governing lawFinance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951

9. Article 320 of the Indian Constitution deals with ______.

(A) functions of Public Service Commissions
(B) functions of Panchayati Raj Institutions
(C) Administrative Tribunals
(D) power of Parliament to vary or revoke

Answer: (A) functions of Public Service Commissions

Explanation: Article 320 of the Constitution deals with the functions of the Public Service Commissions (both Union and State). It lays down that the Commission shall be consulted on matters relating to recruitment to civil services, principles for promotions/transfers, disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the government, and claims for reimbursement of legal expenses, among other functions.

Article 320:

AspectDetail
SubjectFunctions of Public Service Commissions
Applies toBoth UPSC and State PSCs
Matters coveredRecruitment methods, principles for appointments/promotions/transfers, disciplinary matters, legal expense claims
Exclusions (may be regulated by law)Governor/President can exclude certain posts/services from consultation

10. Whenever the government spends more than it collects through revenue, the resulting imbalance is known as

(A) Public deficit
(B) Market deficit
(C) Government deficit
(D) Budget deficit

Answer: (D) Budget deficit

Explanation: Whenever the government’s total expenditure exceeds its total revenue in a given financial year, the resulting imbalance is known as a Budget Deficit. It reflects the gap the government needs to bridge through borrowing or other financing sources, and forms a key indicator of fiscal health along with related measures like fiscal deficit and revenue deficit.

Types of Government Deficit:

Deficit TypeDefinition
Budget DeficitTotal expenditure exceeds total revenue (revenue + capital)
Fiscal DeficitTotal expenditure exceeds total revenue excluding borrowings
Revenue DeficitRevenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts
Primary DeficitFiscal deficit minus interest payments
Effective Revenue DeficitRevenue deficit minus grants for creation of capital assets
Monetary policy linkFinanced via borrowing, often through RBI or market instruments
Reporting bodyPresented annually in the Union Budget by Ministry of Finance
Related ActFRBM Act, 2003 — sets targets for reducing fiscal/revenue deficit

11. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Vice-President
(C) President
(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C) President

Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India. Historically this was done on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 has since introduced a selection committee (Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, and a Union Cabinet Minister) to recommend names to the President.

Chief Election Commissioner Appointment:

AspectDetail
Relevant ArticleArticle 324(2)
Appointing authorityPresident of India
Tenure6 years or till age 65, whichever is earlier
RemovalSame manner as a Supreme Court Judge (Article 324(5))
Recent legal reformCEC and Other ECs Act, 2023 — Selection Committee: PM, LoP, one Union Cabinet Minister
Landmark caseAnoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023)
First CECSukumar Sen (1950)

12. Article 312 of the Indian Constitution deals with ________.

(A) All-India Services
(B) Annual Financial Statement
(C) Administrative Tribunals
(D) Gram Sabha

Answer: (A) All-India Services

Explanation: Article 312 of the Constitution empowers Parliament, if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) declares by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, to create by law one or more All-India Services common to the Union and the States. The Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest Service (IFoS) are examples of such All-India Services.

Article 312:

AspectDetail
SubjectCreation of All-India Services
Special procedureRajya Sabha resolution by 2/3rd majority of members present and voting
PurposeServices common to Union and States, in “national interest”
Existing All-India ServicesIAS, IPS, IFoS (Indian Forest Service, added 1966)
NatureMembers serve under both Union and State governments, recruited centrally
Governing recruitment bodyUPSC conducts Civil Services Examination for these services

13. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for Parliament and Legislature vests with the

(A) President
(B) Election Commission
(C) Cabinet
(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (B) Election Commission

Explanation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State vests in the Election Commission of India. The actual preparation work is carried out through Electoral Registration Officers under the ECI’s direction, in accordance with the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

Preparation of Electoral Rolls:

AspectDetail
Vested inElection Commission of India
Governing ArticleArticle 324
Governing ActRepresentation of the People Act, 1950
Officers involvedElectoral Registration Officers, Booth Level Officers
Special exerciseSpecial Summary Revision — periodic updating of electoral rolls
Related bodyChief Electoral Officer at the state level assists in this process

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2020

1. Hindi in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union according to which Article in the Indian Constitution ?

(A) Article 342
(B) Article 383
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 344

Answer: (C) Article 343

Explanation: Article 343 of the Constitution declares Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. It also provided that English would continue to be used for official purposes for a period of 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., until 1965), a period later extended indefinitely by the Official Languages Act, 1963.

Article 343:

AspectDetail
SubjectOfficial language of the Union
Language declaredHindi in Devanagari script
Numeral form specifiedInternational form of Indian numerals
Transitional provisionEnglish to continue for 15 years from commencement (till 1965)
Extending legislationOfficial Languages Act, 1963 — continued English use indefinitely

2. Who appoints the Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission ? ( Articles 315 to 323 )

(A) The Governor of a State
(B) The Chief Justice of the High Court of the State
(C) The President of India
(D) The Chief Minister of the State

Answer: (A) The Governor of a State

Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, the Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of that State. They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier, and can be removed by the President under the grounds and procedure specified in Article 317.

State Public Service Commission:

AspectDetail
Appointing authorityGovernor of the State
Governing ArticleArticle 316
Term of office6 years or age 62, whichever is earlier
Removal authorityPresident of India (Article 317) — following Supreme Court inquiry for misbehaviour
Joint Commission optionTwo or more states may have a Joint State Public Service Commission (Article 315(2))

3. To ensure free and fair elections the Constitution of India establishes an Election Commission . The members of the Election Commission in the Centre are appointed by whom ?

(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Vice-President of India

Answer: (A) President of India

Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the members of the Election Commission of India — including the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners — are appointed by the President of India. This was traditionally done on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the 2023 Act has since introduced a selection committee mechanism for making recommendations to the President.

Appointment of Election Commission Members:

AspectDetail
Relevant ArticleArticle 324(2)
Appointing authorityPresident of India
Tenure6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier
Removal of CECSame manner as a Supreme Court Judge
Removal of other ECsOnly on recommendation of the CEC
Recent reformCEC and Other ECs (Appointment…) Act, 2023 — Selection Committee: PM, LoP, one Union Cabinet Minister
Landmark caseAnoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023)
Current composition1 CEC + 2 ECs

4. Sanskrit is the 2nd official language of which state in India ?

(A) Karnataka
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (C) Uttarakhand

Explanation: Himachal Pradesh also declared Sanskrit as its second official language later in 2019 Uttarakhand made Sanskrit its second official language in January 2010, becoming the first state in India to do so. The primary official language of Uttarakhand is Hindi.

5. The Constitution 89th Amendment Act, 2003 established :

(A) Right to Education as the Fundamental Right to all the children under 14 years in India.
(B) The “National Commission for Scheduled Castes” and the “National Commission for Scheduled Tribes” .
(C) Reservation of seats for women in local bodies.
(D) Three language policy.

Answer: (B) The “National Commission for Scheduled Castes” and the “National Commission for Scheduled Tribes”

Explanation: The Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003 bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate constitutional bodies — the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (continuing under Article 338) and a newly created National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (under the newly inserted Article 338A) — to allow focused attention on the distinct concerns of each community.

89th Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year2003
EffectCreated separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Article insertedArticle 338A
Article retained (for SCs)Article 338
ReasonTo give focused, independent attention to ST-specific concerns, distinct from SCs
Composition of NCSTChairperson, Vice-Chairperson, 3 other Members
Related later amendment102nd Amendment Act, 2018 — created National Commission for Backward Classes (Article 338B)
Related unrelated optionRight to Education as Fundamental Right came via 86th Amendment Act, 2002 (Article 21A)

6. The sixty-first Amendment of the Constitution of India , lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years in which year ?

(A) 1984
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1990

Answer: (C) 1989

Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989 lowered the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years, by amending Article 326 of the Constitution. This significantly widened India’s electorate ahead of the 1989 general elections.

61st Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year1989
Article amendedArticle 326
ChangeVoting age reduced from 21 to 18 years
Applicable electionsLok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
Prime Minister at the timeRajiv Gandhi
Immediate effectApplied ahead of the 1989 Lok Sabha general elections
SignificanceMajor expansion of India’s electorate, especially youth

7. When was the first general election to the Lok Sabha in India held ?

(A) 1950 – 51
(B) 1951 – 52
(C) 1953 – 54
(D) 1954 – 55

Answer: (B) 1951 – 52

Explanation: India’s first general election to the Lok Sabha was held over several months spanning October 1951 to February 1952, under the supervision of the first Chief Election Commissioner, Sukumar Sen. It was a massive logistical undertaking given the country’s size, diversity, and predominantly illiterate electorate at the time, and is widely regarded as one of the largest democratic exercises in world history up to that point.

First General Election:

AspectDetail
Period heldOctober 1951 – February 1952
Chief Election CommissionerSukumar Sen
Total electorateApprox. 17.3 crore voters
Seats in Lok Sabha (1st)489
Winning partyIndian National Congress
First Prime Minister post-electionJawaharlal Nehru
Voting methodSeparate ballot boxes for each candidate (due to widespread illiteracy)
SignificanceLargest election exercise in the world at that time

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2019

1. Finance Commission consists of

(A) Chairman and three other members
(B) Chairman and four other members
(C) Four whole time members
(D) Five members

Answer: (B) Chairman and four other members

Explanation: The Finance Commission, as constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution and governed by the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, consists of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President. The qualifications, term of office, and manner of selection of these members are also prescribed by Parliament through this Act.

Finance Commission Composition:

AspectDetail
CompositionChairman + 4 other members
Constituting ArticleArticle 280
Governing ActFinance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951
Appointing authorityPresident of India
Frequency of constitutionEvery 5 years, or earlier if necessary
First Finance Commission1951, chaired by K. C. Neogy
Recent Finance Commission15th Finance Commission, chaired by N. K. Singh (2021-26 award period)
Main functionRecommend distribution of tax proceeds between Union and States

2. Under Article 321 of the Constitution , the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the

(A) Chairman of the Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Parliament
(D) President

Answer: (C) Parliament

Explanation: According to Article 321 of the Constitution of India, an Act made by Parliament may provide for the exercise of additional functions by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) regarding the services of the Union. Similarly, the same article vests the power to extend the functions of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) in the respective State Legislature.

  • Chairman / Ministry of Home Affairs: Neither has the constitutional authority to modify or extend the statutory functions of this independent constitutional body.
  • President: While the President appoints the Chairman and members of the UPSC (Article 316) and makes regulations regarding their conditions of service (Article 318), the President cannot expand the legislative jurisdiction or functions of the commission; that power is explicitly reserved for Parliament.

3. The Union Public Service Commission has advisory power in the following matters: (Article 320)

(A) Methods of recruitment to Civil service
(B) Disciplinary matters affecting a public servant
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Both of the above

Explanation: Under Article 320 of the Constitution, the Union Public Service Commission (and State Public Service Commissions) must be consulted by the government on matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and civil posts, as well as on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the Government of India in a civil capacity, including matters of promotion, transfer, and suitability for such purposes.

Article 320 — UPSC’s Advisory Role:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 320
Consulted onMethods of recruitment to civil services and posts
Also consulted onDisciplinary matters affecting a civil servant (dismissal, removal, reduction in rank, etc.)
Other mattersSuitability of candidates for appointment; transfer from one service to another; claims for legal expenses
Advisory natureGovernment not bound to accept UPSC’s advice, but must record reasons for departure to Parliament
ExclusionsPresident/Governor may specify posts/matters exempted from consultation

4. The term of the members of a State Public Service Commission is of (Article 316)

(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 10 years
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) 5 years

Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, a member of a State Public Service Commission holds office for a term of five years from the date of appointment, or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier — whichever condition is met first determines when the member’s term ends.

State PSC — Term of Members:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 316
Term of office5 years or age 62, whichever is earlier
Comparable UPSC term6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier
Appointing authorityGovernor of the State
RemovalBy President, on grounds under Article 317
ResignationMember may resign by writing to the Governor

5. Provisions relating to Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions are contained in

(A) Part XIV Chapter I, Articles 315-323
(B) Part XIV Chapter II, Artic1es 315-323
(C) Part XIV Chapter I, Articles 308-318
(D) Part XIV Chapter II, Articles 308-318

Answer: (B) Part XIV Chapter II, Articles 315-323

Explanation: Covers Articles 308 to 314. It deals with recruitment and conditions of service for public servants (such as All India Services like IAS and IPS). Covers Articles 315 to 323. It specifically establishes the composition, appointment, powers, and functions of both the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and the State Public Service Commissions (SPSC).

  • Article 323: Presentation of annual reports by the commissions.
  • Article 315: Establishment of Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States.
  • Article 316: Appointment and term of office of members.
  • Article 320: Core functions and duties of Public Service Commissions.

6. A member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehavior only after the enquiry has been held by

(A) Joint Parliamentary Committee.
(B) Committee constituted by the Governor of the concerned State.
(C) High Court of the concerned State.
(D) Supreme Court of India.

Answer: (D) Supreme Court of India

Explanation: Under Article 317 of the Constitution, a member of a State Public Service Commission (or the UPSC) can be removed from office by the President on grounds of misbehaviour only after the Supreme Court, on a reference made by the President, has held an inquiry and reported that the member ought to be removed on such grounds.

Removal of PSC Member:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 317
Removing authorityPresident of India
Mandatory inquiry bySupreme Court of India (on reference by the President)
Grounds for removalMisbehaviour, insolvency, engaging in paid employment outside duties, infirmity of mind/body
Suspension pending inquiryPresident may suspend the member during the Supreme Court’s inquiry
Applicable toBoth UPSC and State PSC members
Similar protectionGiven to Supreme Court/High Court Judges (Article 124(4))

7. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every

(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years

Answer: (D) 5 years

Explanation: Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India every five years, or earlier if considered necessary, to make recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid.

Finance Commission:

AspectDetail
Constituting ArticleArticle 280
FrequencyEvery 5 years, or earlier if necessary
CompositionChairman + 4 other members
Appointing authorityPresident of India
First Finance Commission1951, chaired by K. C. Neogy
Recent Finance Commission15th FC, chaired by N. K. Singh (2021-26 award period)
Main functionDistribution of tax proceeds; grants-in-aid principles

8. The Union Public Service Commission submits its annual report on its work to

(A) the Chief Justice of India
(B) the Parliament
(C) the President
(D) the Union Home Minister

Answer: (C) the President

Explanation: Under Article 323(1) of the Constitution, the Union Public Service Commission is required to present an annual report on the work done by it to the President of India. The President then places this report before both Houses of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on its recommendations, including reasons for non-acceptance where applicable.

UPSC Annual Report:

AspectDetail
Relevant ArticleArticle 323(1)
Report submitted toPresident of India
Subsequent actionPresident lays report before Parliament with action-taken memorandum
FrequencyAnnually
State PSC equivalentReports to the Governor (Article 323(2))
Governing PartPart XIV — Services under the Union and the States

9. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of election to

(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Offices of President and Vice President
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India is responsible for the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, to the Legislature of every State, and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India — covering all three categories listed.

Election Commission’s Electoral Responsibility:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 324
Elections coveredParliament (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha via oversight), State Legislatures, offices of President and Vice-President
Not coveredPanchayat and Municipality elections (handled by State Election Commissions)

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2018

1. Chairman and other members of the Union and State Public Service Commission are appointed by

(A) the President
(B) the President and Governor of respective States
(C) the Prime Minister and Chief Minister of respective States
(D) Both (A) & (C)

Answer: (B) the President and Governor of respective States

Explanation: According to Article 316 of the Constitution of India, the appointment authority is divided between the federal and state heads:

  • Union Public Service Commission (UPSC): The Chairman and other members are appointed by the President.
  • State Public Service Commissions (SPSC): The Chairman and other members are appointed by the Governor of the respective State.
  • Joint Public Service Commission (JPSC): If two or more states share a joint commission, its members are appointed by the President.

While the Governor has the power to appoint the members of a State Public Service Commission, the Governor cannot remove them. Under Article 317, the power to remove members of both the UPSC and SPSC rests exclusively with the President.

2. The members of UPSC hold the office

(A) during the pleasure of President
(B) as long as they enjoy the confidence in Parliament
(C) for life or till they attain the age of 70 years
(D) for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years

Answer: (D) for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years

Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, a member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a term of six years from the date on which they enter their office, or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever event occurs earlier. This ensures both a fixed tenure and an upper age limit for UPSC members.

Tenure of UPSC Members:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 316
Term of office6 years, or age 65, whichever is earlier
Comparable State PSC term5 years, or age 62, whichever is earlier
ResignationMember may resign by writing to the President
RemovalBy President, under Article 317, after Supreme Court inquiry into misbehaviour
Acting Chairman provisionPresident may appoint a member to act as Chairman during a vacancy

3. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of election to

(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Office of President and Vice President
(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India is responsible for the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, the Legislature of every State, and the offices of President and Vice-President of India — covering all three categories listed in the question.

Election Commission’s Electoral Responsibility:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 324
Elections coveredParliament, State Legislatures, offices of President and Vice-President
Not coveredPanchayat and Municipality elections (handled by separate State Election Commissions)

4. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the (Article 317)

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chairman of UPSC
(C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister on recommendation of Supreme Court

Answer: (C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court

Explanation: Under Article 317 of the Constitution, a member of the Union Public Service Commission (or a State Public Service Commission) can be removed from office by the President only on grounds of misbehaviour, after the Supreme Court, on a reference made by the President, has held an inquiry and reported that the member ought to be removed.

Removal of UPSC Member:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 317
Removing authorityPresident of India
Mandatory inquiry bySupreme Court of India (on Presidential reference)
Grounds for removalMisbehaviour, insolvency, paid employment outside duties, infirmity of mind/body
Suspension pending inquiryPresident may suspend the member during inquiry
Applicable toBoth UPSC and State PSC members
Similar protection given toSupreme Court/High Court Judges (Article 124(4))

5. The Chief Election Commissioner is

(A) appointed by Home Minister
(B) appointed by Prime Minister
(C) elected by Parliament
(D) appointed by the President

Answer: (D) appointed by the President

Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India. Historically this appointment was made on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment…) Act, 2023 has since introduced a selection committee process to recommend names to the President.

Chief Election Commissioner Appointment:

AspectDetail
Relevant ArticleArticle 324(2)
Appointing authorityPresident of India
Tenure6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier
RemovalSame manner as a Supreme Court Judge (Article 324(5))
Recent legal reformCEC and Other ECs Act, 2023 — Selection Committee: PM, LoP, one Union Cabinet Minister
Landmark caseAnoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023)
First CECSukumar Sen (1950)

6. Under Article 321 of the Constitution , the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the

(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Parliament
(C) Chairman of the Commission
(D) President

Answer: (B) Parliament

Explanation: Under Article 321 of the Constitution, Parliament is empowered to make provisions extending the functions of the Union Public Service Commission by law, allowing the Commission to serve the needs of any local authority, corporation, or other body established by law, or of any public institution, in addition to its functions specified under Article 320.

Article 321:

AspectDetail
SubjectExtension of functions of Public Service Commissions
Extending authority (Union)Parliament, by law
Extending authority (State)State Legislature, by law
PurposeTo serve needs of local authorities, corporations, public institutions, etc.
NatureEnabling provision to widen the Commission’s advisory/consultative role

7. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General

(A) Article 78
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 178
(D) Article 238

Answer: (B) Article 148

Explanation: Article 148 of the Constitution provides for the appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India by the President of India, by warrant under his hand and seal. The CAG holds office for a term of six years or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, and can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court Judge.

Article 148:

AspectDetail
SubjectAppointment of the CAG
Appointing authorityPresident of India
Term of office6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier
RemovalSame manner and grounds as a Supreme Court Judge (proved misbehaviour/incapacity)
OathTaken before the President or a person appointed by him

8. How many languages are present in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?

(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22

Answer: (D) 22

Explanation: The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution currently lists 22 official languages recognised by the Union of India. Originally, at the time of the Constitution’s adoption in 1950, it contained only 14 languages; over time, further languages were added through various constitutional amendments — including Sindhi (21st Amendment, 1967), Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (71st Amendment, 1992), and Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali (92nd Amendment, 2003) — bringing the total to 22.

Eighth Schedule:

AspectDetail
Current number of languages22
Original number (1950)14
Languages added laterSindhi (1967); Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (1992); Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali (2003)
Amendments involved21st Amendment (1967), 71st Amendment (1992), 92nd Amendment (2003)
PurposeRecognised languages for development, and for translation of official documents

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2017

1. UPSC submits its Annual Report on its work to

(A) The Parliament
(B) The Union Home Minister
(C) The President
(D) The Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C) The President

Explanation: Under Article 323(1) of the Constitution, the Union Public Service Commission is required to present its annual report on the work done by it to the President of India, who then lays it before both Houses of Parliament along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on its recommendations, including reasons for non-acceptance where applicable.

UPSC Annual Report:

AspectDetail
Relevant ArticleArticle 323(1)
Report submitted toPresident of India
Subsequent actionPresident lays report before Parliament with action-taken memorandum
FrequencyAnnually
State PSC equivalentReports to the Governor (Article 323(2))
Governing PartPart XIV — Services under the Union and the States

2. The Chief Election Commissioner is

(A) Elected by Parliament
(B) Appointed by Home Minister
(C) Appointed by Prime Minister
(D) Appointed by President

Answer: (D) Appointed by President

Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India. Historically this was done on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment…) Act, 2023 has since introduced a selection committee mechanism to recommend names to the President.

Chief Election Commissioner Appointment:

AspectDetail
Relevant ArticleArticle 324(2)
Appointing authorityPresident of India
Tenure6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier
RemovalSame manner as a Supreme Court Judge (Article 324(5))
Recent legal reformCEC and Other ECs Act, 2023 — Selection Committee: PM, LoP, one Union Cabinet Minister
Landmark caseAnoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023)
First CECSukumar Sen (1950)

3. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every

(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 7 years

Answer: (C) 5 years

Explanation: Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India every five years, or earlier if considered necessary, primarily to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid to the States.

Finance Commission:

AspectDetail
Constituting ArticleArticle 280
FrequencyEvery 5 years, or earlier if necessary
CompositionChairman + 4 other members
Appointing authorityPresident of India
First Finance Commission1951, chaired by K. C. Neogy
Recent Finance Commission15th FC, chaired by N. K. Singh (2021-26 award period)
Main functionDistribution of tax proceeds; grants-in-aid principles

4. The Vote value of the voters in the President Election in India are based on the population count of the respective State for the year,

(A) 2010
(B) 1969
(C) 1971
(D) 1991

Answer: (C) 1971

Explanation: Under Article 55 of the Constitution, the value of votes of MLAs in the election of the President of India is calculated using the population figures of each state as per the 1971 Census. This freeze on the population base was maintained through subsequent constitutional amendments (42nd and 84th Amendments) to avoid penalising states that successfully controlled population growth, and continues to apply even today for the purpose of this calculation.

Vote Value in Presidential Election:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 55
Census year used1971
Reason for freezeTo not penalise states with better population control; frozen by 42nd Amendment (1976) and extended by 84th Amendment (2001), 87th Amendment (2003)
MLA vote value formula(Total population of State ÷ Total number of elected MLAs) ÷ 1000
MP vote value formulaTotal value of votes of all MLAs of all states ÷ Total number of elected MPs (Lok Sabha + Rajya Sabha… actually only elected MPs of both Houses)
Electoral College for PresidentElected members of both Houses of Parliament + elected members of State (and UT) Legislative Assemblies
Related caseIn re: Presidential Poll (1974)

5. Article 340 of the Constitution of India deals with

(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Backward Classes Commission
(D) UPSC

Answer: (C) Backward Classes Commission

Explanation: Article 340 of the Constitution deals with the appointment of a Commission by the President to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within India, the difficulties they face, and to recommend steps for their advancement, including grants-in-aid. This provision was used to set up both the Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) and the Mandal Commission (1979).

Article 340:

AspectDetail
SubjectAppointment of Commission to investigate backward classes
Appointing authorityPresident of India
PurposeInvestigate conditions of socially/educationally backward classes; recommend measures
First Commission under this ArticleKaka Kalelkar Commission (1953)
Second Commission under this ArticleMandal Commission (1979), chaired by B. P. Mandal

6. The UPSC has to serve only

(A) Selected States
(B) Entire Nation
(C) Union Territories
(D) Depends on President’s will

Answer: (B) Entire Nation

Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission, being the central recruiting and advisory body established under Article 315 of the Constitution, serves the entire nation — it conducts recruitment and advises the Union Government on civil services matters across India, and may also assist State Governments upon request (subject to Presidential approval), unlike a State Public Service Commission which serves only its respective state.

UPSC’s Jurisdiction:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 315
Scope of serviceEntire nation (Union-level recruitment and advisory functions)
Can also assistState Governments, if requested and approved by the President (Article 315(4))
Main functionsRecruitment to All-India Services, Central Civil Services, disciplinary matters (Article 320)
ContrastState PSC serves only its respective state (Article 316)
Recruitment examCivil Services Examination, Engineering Services Exam, etc.

7. National Development Council is ( apex & advisory body )

(A) Political body
(B) Non-political body
(C) Statutory body
(D) None of the above

Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation: The National Development Council (established on August 6, 1952) is neither a constitutional body (not mentioned in the Constitution) nor a statutory body. It was created purely via an executive resolution of the Government of India on the recommendation of the First Planning Commission. Since it is an administrative, advisory, and deliberative executive body rather than a political entity or a body created by an Act of Parliament, none of the specific options (A, B, or C) accurately define its legal nature.

  • It acts as the apex advisory body to bring a federal perspective to national development plans and secure the cooperation of all states in implementing national policies.
  • It is chaired by the Prime Minister and comprises Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States, representatives/administrators of Union Territories, and members of the NITI Aayog (erstwhile Planning Commission).

8. The Chairman of the Public Service Commission of a State can be removed from his office by

(A) The President of India
(B) The Governor of the State
(C) The Legislative Council of the State
(D) The High Court of the State

Answer: (A) The President of India

Explanation: Under Article 317 of the Constitution of India, the Chairman and any other member of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) can only be removed from office by order of the President of India. The President can remove the Chairman on the ground of misbehaviour only after the Supreme Court conducts an inquiry (upon a reference made by the President) and reports that the person ought to be removed. While the Governor holds the power to appoint the SPSC Chairman, they can only suspend them from office pending the final removal investigation by the Supreme Court; they do not possess the constitutional authority to permanently remove them.

9. Under Article 321 of the Constitution of India the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the

(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Chairman of the Commission
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs

Answer: (B) Parliament

Explanation: Under Article 321 of the Constitution, Parliament is empowered to make provisions extending the functions of the Union Public Service Commission by law, allowing it to serve the needs of local authorities, corporations, or other bodies established by law, or public institutions, in addition to its core functions under Article 320.

Article 321:

AspectDetail
SubjectExtension of functions of Public Service Commissions
Extending authority (Union)Parliament, by law
Extending authority (State)State Legislature, by law
PurposeTo serve needs of local authorities, corporations, public institutions, etc.
NatureEnabling provision to widen the Commission’s advisory/consultative role

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2016

1. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes was created by – (2003)

(A) 87th Amendment
(B) 88th Amendment
(C) 89th Amendment
(D) 92th Amendment

Answer: (C) 89th Amendment

Explanation: The Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003 created a separate National Commission for Scheduled Castes by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, thereby bifurcating the earlier combined National Commission for SCs and STs into two independent constitutional bodies.

89th Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year2003
EffectBifurcated combined SC/ST Commission into two separate bodies
Article for NCSCArticle 338
Article inserted for NCSTArticle 338A
ReasonFocused, independent attention to distinct concerns of SCs and STs
CompositionChairperson, Vice-Chairperson, 3 other Members (each Commission)
Related later amendment102nd Amendment Act, 2018 — created National Commission for Backward Classes (Article 338B)
Related earlier provisionOriginal combined Commission functioned under Article 338 alone before 2003

2. Which amendment authorised the govt. to fill the backlog of vacancies for the Scheduled Castes (15%) and Scheduled Tribes (7.5%) as these two vacancies are to be treated as a separate class of vacancies to be filled in any succeeding year or years ? (Article 16(4B) – 2000)

(A) 81st
(B) 85th
(C) 86th
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) 81st

Explanation: The 81st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2000 inserted clause (4B) into Article 16 of the Indian Constitution. This amendment authorized the government to treat unfilled backlog vacancies reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) as a separate class of vacancies to be filled up in the succeeding year or years. Crucially, it determined that these backlog vacancies would not be counted when calculating the 50% ceiling limit on the total number of reservations for that current year.

  • 86th Amendment Act (2002): Made education a Fundamental Right by inserting Article 21A, providing free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years.
  • 85th Amendment Act (2001): Provided for consequential seniority in the case of promotion by virtue of rule of reservation for government servants belonging to the SCs and STs.

3. Which amendment empowered the state to make Provisions for reservation in promotion in government jobs in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ? (1995)

(A) 74th Amendment
(B) 75th Amendment
(C) 77th Amendment
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) 77th Amendment

Explanation: The Constitution (77th Amendment) Act, 1995 inserted Clause (4A) into Article 16, empowering the State to make provisions for reservation in matters of promotion in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in public employment, if the State considers that these communities are not adequately represented in government services. This was enacted in response to the Supreme Court’s ruling in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), which had held that reservation in promotions was not permissible.

77th Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year1995
Article insertedArticle 16(4A)
PurposeEnables reservation in promotion for SCs/STs
ContextResponse to Indra Sawhney judgment (1992), which barred promotion reservation
Landmark case (later)M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006) — laid down conditions for applying Art 16(4A)

4. Which one of the following amendments was concerned with the extension of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes ?

(A) 8th Amendment
(B) 23rd Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was originally provided for a limited period under the Constitution, and this period of reservation has been periodically extended through successive constitutional amendments — including the 8th Amendment (1959), 23rd Amendment (1969), 45th Amendment (1980), and several later ones (62nd, 79th, 95th, and 104th Amendments) — each extending the reservation by ten more years, until the 104th Amendment Act, 2019 extended it further while simultaneously ending reservation for Anglo-Indians.

Extension of SC/ST Reservation in Legislatures:

AmendmentYearEffect
8th Amendment1959First extension of reservation (originally for 10 years from 1950)
23rd Amendment1969Further extension
45th Amendment1980Further extension
62nd Amendment1989Further extension (also ended nomination of Anglo-Indians to State Assemblies in some UTs — details vary)
79th Amendment1999Further extension
95th Amendment2009Further extension till 2020
104th Amendment2019Extended SC/ST reservation for 10 more years; ended Anglo-Indian reservation

5. Which one of the following amendment of the Constitution did away with the privileges and concessions enjoyed by the I.C.S. Officers ? (1972)

(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 28th Amendment
(C) 29th Amendment
(D) 42th Amendment

Answer: (B) 28th Amendment

Explanation: The 28th Amendment Act, 1972 eliminated the special service conditions, privileges, and concessions that were guaranteed to the colonial-era Indian Civil Service (I.C.S.) officers. It completely repealed Article 314, which originally protected the pre-independence service contracts and retirement terms of these crown-appointed officers. It inserted Article 312A, empowering Parliament to vary or revoke the remuneration, pension, and disciplinary conditions of service for these officers either prospectively or retrospectively.

  • 42nd Amendment Act (1976): Widely known as the “Mini-Constitution,” it introduced extensive changes across the entire framework, including adding the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” to the Preamble and enlisting the Fundamental Duties.
  • 24th Amendment Act (1971): Affirmed the power of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, and made it compulsory for the President to give assent to Constitutional Amendment Bills.
  • 29th Amendment Act (1972): Placed certain Kerala land reform amendment acts within the protective purview of the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.

6. Which amendment accorded statutory status to the Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ?

(A) 64th
(B) 65th (1990)
(C) 68th
(D) 70th

Answer: (B) 65th (1990)

Explanation: The Constitution (65th Amendment) Act, 1990 accorded statutory status to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes by inserting Article 338, replacing the earlier arrangement of a Special Officer/Commissioner for SCs and STs. This body was later made a fully constitutional commission through subsequent amendments, and further bifurcated into two separate commissions by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003.

65th Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year1990
EffectReplaced Special Officer for SCs/STs with a National Commission for SCs and STs
Article inserted/amendedArticle 338
Prior arrangementSpecial Officer under Article 338 (pre-1990), as originally enacted in 1950
Later development89th Amendment Act, 2003 — bifurcated into separate NCSC (Art. 338) and NCST (Art. 338A)
Related bodyNational Commission for Backward Classes — added later via 102nd Amendment, 2018 (Art. 338B)

7. Which among the following committees recommended to set up an “ Equal Opportunity Commission ” ? (2014)

(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Sachar Committee
(C) Bhagawati Committee
(D) Chawla Committee

Answer: (B) Sachar Committee

Explanation: The Sachar Committee (2005-06), headed by Justice Rajinder Sachar, was constituted to study the social, economic, and educational status of the Muslim community in India. Among its various recommendations to address underrepresentation and discrimination, it recommended the establishment of an Equal Opportunity Commission to look into grievances of deprived groups, including religious and linguistic minorities.

Sachar Committee:

AspectDetail
Constituted2005
ChairmanJustice Rajinder Sachar
Report submitted2006
PurposeStudy social, economic and educational status of Muslims in India
Key recommendation cited hereEstablishment of an Equal Opportunity Commission
Other recommendationsDelimitation of constituencies to not adversely affect minority representation; credit and employment measures
Related body (never formally created)Equal Opportunity Commission — recommendation not implemented as proposed
Related committeeRanganath Misra Commission (2007) — also examined minority welfare, recommended 15% reservation for minorities

8. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution lays down the establishment of the –

(A) Planning Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) River waters Tribunal
(D) Finance Commission

Answer: (D) Finance Commission

Explanation: Article 280 of the Constitution lays down the provision for the establishment of the Finance Commission, a body constituted by the President every five years (or earlier, if necessary) to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, and the principles governing grants-in-aid to States from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Article 280:

AspectDetail
SubjectConstitution of Finance Commission
Appointing authorityPresident of India
FrequencyEvery 5 years, or earlier if necessary
CompositionChairman + 4 other members
Main functionsTax revenue distribution; grants-in-aid principles; augmenting State/local body funds
Related but distinct bodyPlanning Commission (now NITI Aayog) — extra-constitutional body, not under Art. 280

9. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can function as members up to the age of —

(A) 60 years
(B) 58 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years

Answer: (D) 65 years

Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, a member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a term of six years from the date of appointment, or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever event occurs earlier — setting the upper age limit at 65 years for UPSC members.

UPSC Members — Age/Tenure Limits:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 316
Age limit (UPSC)65 years
Term of office6 years, or age 65, whichever is earlier
Age limit (State PSC)62 years
Term of office (State PSC)5 years, or age 62, whichever is earlier
RemovalBy President under Article 317, after Supreme Court inquiry

WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2015

1. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chairman of UPSC
(C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister on recommendation of Supreme court

Answer: (C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court

Explanation: Under Article 317 of the Constitution, a member of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed from office by the President only on grounds of misbehaviour, and only after the Supreme Court, on a reference made by the President, has held an inquiry and reported that the member ought to be removed on such grounds.

Removal of UPSC Member:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 317
Removing authorityPresident of India
Mandatory inquiry bySupreme Court of India (on Presidential reference)
Grounds for removalMisbehaviour, insolvency, paid employment outside duties, infirmity of mind/body
Suspension pending inquiryPresident may suspend the member during inquiry
Applicable toBoth UPSC and State PSC members
Similar protection given toSupreme Court/High Court Judges (Article 124(4))

2. The Composition of UPSC

(A) Has been laid down in the Constitution
(B) Is determined by Parliament
(C) Is determined by President
(D) Is determined by Home Ministry

Answer: (C) Is determined by President

Explanation: As per Article 318 of the Constitution of India, the Constitution does not specify the exact strength of the Commission. It leaves the power to determine the precise number of members entirely to the discretion of the President.
Based on regulations established by the President, the UPSC traditionally consists of a Chairman and 10 other members.
The President is also constitutionally authorised to determine the salary, allowances, and other conditions of service for the Chairman and members.

3. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that it should by the endeavor of every State and every local authority to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to linguistic minority groups :

(A) Article 349
(B) Article 350
(C) Art icle 350-A
(D) Article 351

Answer: (C) Article 350-A

Explanation: Article 350-A of the Constitution directs that it shall be the endeavour of every State, and of every local authority within the State, to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups, and empowers the President to issue directions to any State as considered necessary to secure this provision.

Article 350-A:

AspectDetail
SubjectInstruction in mother tongue at primary stage for linguistic minorities
Duty imposed onEvery State and every local authority within the State
Inserted by7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956
Nature of provisionDirective/endeavour clause, not strictly enforceable as a Fundamental Right

4. The first Election Commissioner of India was : (1950)

(A) Sukumar Sen
(B) Dr. Nagendra Singh
(C) S.P. Sen Verma
(D) K.V.K. Sundaram

Answer: (A) Sukumar Sen

Explanation: Sukumar Sen was the first Election Commissioner (Chief Election Commissioner) of India, appointed in 1950. He successfully organised and conducted India’s first general elections held in 1951-52, a massive logistical achievement given the scale, diversity, and largely illiterate electorate of the newly independent nation.

First Election Commissioner of India:

AspectDetail
NameSukumar Sen
Year appointed1950
Tenure21 March 1950 – 19 December 1958
Key achievementConducted India’s first general elections (1951-52)
BackgroundIndian Civil Service (ICS) officer, former Chief Secretary of West Bengal
Later roleAlso supervised Sudan’s first general elections after retirement
SuccessorK. V. K. Sundaram
Related factFirst woman CEC — V. S. Ramadevi (1990)

5. The Constitution of India provides that “it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language”. It is found in

(A) Article 49
(B) Article 149
(C) Art icle 351
(D) Article 355

Answer: (C) Article 351

Explanation: Article 351 of the Constitution places a duty on the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all elements of the composite culture of India, and to secure its enrichment by assimilating forms, style and expressions used in Hindustani and other Indian languages, drawing primarily on Sanskrit for its vocabulary.

Article 351:

AspectDetail
SubjectDirective for development of the Hindi language
Duty imposed onThe Union (Union Government)
ObjectivePromote Hindi as a medium of expression for India’s composite culture
Primary source for vocabularySanskrit, and secondarily other languages in the Eighth Schedule
Part of ConstitutionPart XVII — Official Language

6. English is the official language of which one of the following States ? ( Arunachal Pradesh & Nagaland )

(A) Nagaland
(B) Assam
(C) Manipur
(D) Tripura

Answer: (A) Nagaland

Explanation: English is the official language of the State of Nagaland, formally adopted under the Nagaland Official Language Act, 1967, making it one of the few Indian states where English (rather than a regional Indian language) serves as the sole official language for administrative and legislative purposes.

English as Official Language:

AspectDetail
StateNagaland
Governing lawNagaland Official Language Act, 1967
Related stateArunachal Pradesh — also uses English as sole official language (Assembly proceedings, etc.)
Related stateMeghalaya — English is a de facto/associate official language alongside Khasi/Garo
Assam’s official languageAssamese (with Bengali as additional official language in some districts, e.g. Barak Valley)
Manipur’s official languageMeitei/Manipuri
Tripura’s official languageBengali and Kokborok
SignificanceReflects linguistic diversity of Northeast India, absence of a single dominant regional language in these states

7. Point out the correct statement :
1. Originally the Constitution of India had 14 languages in the 8th schedule
2. Currently there are 22 languages in the Constitution of India

(A) 1 correct
(B) 2 not correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation: Originally, at the time the Constitution came into force in 1950, the Eighth Schedule contained 14 languages. Over subsequent decades, through various constitutional amendments (21st, 71st, and 92nd Amendments), additional languages were added, bringing the current total to 22 languages — making both statements in the question factually correct.

Eighth Schedule — Language Additions Over Time:

StageNumber of LanguagesDetails
Original (1950)14Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Marathi, Malayalam, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu
21st Amendment (1967)+1 (Sindhi)Total: 15
71st Amendment (1992)+3 (Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali)Total: 18
92nd Amendment (2003)+4 (Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali)Total: 22
Current total22As of present

8. Which of the following funds/authorities/ bodies can be audited by the CAG ?
1. Consolidated Funds of Union Government, State, U.Ts having legislative Assemblies
2. Contingency Funds of India
3. Public Accounts of States
4. Receipts and expenditure of PPP (Public Private Partnership)

(A) 1, 2, 3 only
(B) 1, 2 only
(C) 1, 3 only
(D) All

Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 only

Explanation: Under Article 149 read with the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, the Comptroller and Auditor General audits the Consolidated Funds of the Union, States, and Union Territories having legislative assemblies, as well as the Contingency Funds of India and the Public Accounts of States. However, the CAG does not have a general mandate to audit Public-Private Partnership (PPP) receipts and expenditures unless specifically brought within its audit jurisdiction, so option 4 is not automatically included as a routine function.

CAG’s Audit Jurisdiction:

ItemCovered by CAG?
Consolidated Funds (Union, States, UTs with legislature)Yes
Contingency Fund of IndiaYes
Public Accounts of StatesYes
Receipts/expenditure of PPPsNot as a routine/general mandate
Governing ArticleArticle 149
Governing ActCAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971
Bodies also auditableGovernment companies, corporations (as per specific statutes), bodies substantially financed by government

9. What is the criteria for a regional party to be recognised as a national party ?

(A) Must be recognised in at least 4 states
(B) Must be recognised in at least 3 states
(C) To get 1/10th seats in the Lok Sabha
(D) Must get 1/10th seats in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Answer: (A) Must be recognised in at least 4 states

Explanation: According to the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, a regional or registered political party can elevate to a National Party if it fulfills any one of the following three conditions:

  1. State Party Status (Option A): The party achieves official recognition as a “State Party” in at least four distinct states. (For instance, the Aam Aadmi Party successfully attained national status by meeting this exact requirement).
  2. Lok Sabha Seats: It wins a minimum of 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha (which equals 11 seats), and these elected members must hail from at least three different states.
  3. Vote Share + Seats: It secures at least 6% of the total valid votes in four or more states during a Lok Sabha or State Assembly election, and additionally wins at least 4 Lok Sabha seats from any state(s).
  • Options (C) & (D): The fractional requirement of 1/10th seats applies to defining the Quorum required to conduct a parliamentary session or determining the official Leader of the Opposition, rather than defining ECI party recognition rules.
  • Option (B): Being recognized in 3 states is insufficient; the legal threshold explicitly demands 4 states.

10. Choose the incorrect statement among the following :

(A) The National Commission for S.C. is a 6 member body
(B) National Commission for S.C. is a constitutional body established with a view to provide safe-guards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes.
(C) The first commission came into being on Aug, 1978
(D) The Commission enquires into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes

Answer: (A) The National Commission for S.C. is a 6 member body

Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes, as per Article 338 of the Constitution, consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other Members — a total of five members, not six. This makes statement (A) the incorrect one among the options, since the Commission functioned first as a non-statutory body from 1978, then became statutory in 1990, and finally became a full constitutional body (in its present SC-specific form) after the 89th Amendment, 2003.

National Commission for Scheduled Castes:

AspectDetail
CompositionChairperson + Vice-Chairperson + 3 other Members (5 total)
Governing ArticleArticle 338
First Commission constitutedAugust 1978 (non-statutory, by Presidential Order)
Statutory status given65th Amendment Act, 1990
Made SC-specific89th Amendment Act, 2003 (STs given separate Commission under Art. 338A)
FunctionsInquire into specific complaints re: deprivation of SC rights/safeguards; advise on SC welfare planning
PowersCivil court powers while investigating complaints
ReportingAnnual report to President, laid before Parliament

11. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) consider the following statements :
1. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become a Chairman of NHRC
2. The Chairman can be re-appointed

Which of the statements above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation: Following the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, the eligibility criteria for the post of NHRC Chairperson was expanded. Now, either a retired Chief Justice of India OR a retired Judge of the Supreme Court is eligible to become the Chairperson. The word “Only” makes this statement false. The 2019 Amendment removed the earlier restriction on the maximum number of terms, making both the Chairperson and members eligible for re-appointment for a period of 3 years, subject to the maximum upper age limit of 70 years.

12. The jurisdiction of the Union Public Service Commission can be extended by :

(A) Government by a resolution
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) (B) or (C) depending on the type of extension

Answer: (C) Parliament

Explanation: Under Article 321 of the Indian Constitution, the power to extend the functions and jurisdiction of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is vested exclusively in Parliament. This expansion cannot be achieved through an executive resolution or presidential order alone; it requires an formal act passed by Parliament. Through this mechanism, Parliament can place any public service, local authority, corporate body, or public institution under the advisory or recruitment purview of the UPSC.

13. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is dealt within :

(A) Part XII of Constitution of India
(B) Part XIII of Constitution of India
(C) Part XIV of Constitution of India
(D) Part XVI of Constitution of India

Answer: (D) Part XVI of Constitution of India

Explanation: Part XVI of the Constitution of India spans Articles 330 to 342B and is titled “Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes”. It specifically handles the reservation of seats and representation for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in political structures. For instance:

  • Article 330: Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha.
  • Article 332: Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the State Legislative Assemblies.
  • Article 335: Acknowledges the claims of SCs and STs to services and posts under the Union or States.
  • Part XIV: Covers Articles 308 to 323, dealing with Services Under the Union and the States (including the UPSC and All India Services)
  • Part XII : Covers Articles 264 to 300A, dealing with Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits (including GST rules and the Right to Property).
  • Part XIII : Covers Articles 301 to 307, dealing with Trade, Commerce, and Intercourse within the territory of India.

14. The Constitution of India has defined which of the following ?
1. Scheduled Caste
2. Scheduled Tribe
3. Anglo Indians

Select the correct answer

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Constitution of India provides definitions for Scheduled Castes (Article 366(24)) and Scheduled Tribes (Article 366(25)), and also contains specific provisions relating to the Anglo-Indian community (Article 366(2)), defining who qualifies as an Anglo-Indian for constitutional purposes. Thus, all three groups — Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Anglo-Indians — are explicitly defined in the Constitution.

Constitutional Definitions:

CategoryDefining Article
Scheduled CastesArticle 366(24)
Scheduled TribesArticle 366(25)
Anglo-IndianArticle 366(2)
Notification mechanism (SC/ST)Article 341 (SC) and Article 342 (ST) — President specifies castes/tribes by public notification
SignificanceBackward Classes (OBCs) are notably NOT constitutionally “defined” in the same explicit manner as SC/ST/Anglo-Indian

15. Which of the following articles correctly matched ?

(A) Election Commission – Art 324
(B) Finance Commission – Art 200
(C) Attorney General – Art 176
(D) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes – Art 320

Answer: (A) Election Commission – Art 324

Explanation: Among the given options, only the pairing of the Election Commission with Article 324 is correctly matched — Article 324 vests the Election Commission with superintendence, direction and control of elections. The other pairings are incorrect: the Finance Commission is actually established under Article 280 (not 200), the Attorney General for India is provided for under Article 76 (not 176), and the National Commission for SCs/STs is covered under Articles 338/338A (not 320, which deals with functions of Public Service Commissions).

Correct Article Matches:

BodyCorrect Article
Election CommissionArticle 324
Finance CommissionArticle 280
Attorney General for IndiaArticle 76
National Commission for SCsArticle 338
National Commission for STsArticle 338A
Comptroller and Auditor GeneralArticle 148
Union Public Service CommissionArticle 315 (establishment), Article 320 (functions)

16. Who was the first woman to become a Chief Election Commissioner of India ?

(A) V. S. Ramadevi
(B) G. D. Das
(C) S. K. Bedi
(D) R. M. Nikam

Answer: (A) V. S. Ramadevi

Explanation: V. S. Ramadevi became the first woman to hold the office of Chief Election Commissioner of India, serving briefly in 1990 (26 November 1990 to 11 December 1990). Prior to this role, she had also served as Governor of several Indian states, making her one of the few individuals to hold both a gubernatorial post and the position of CEC.

First Woman Chief Election Commissioner:

AspectDetail
NameV. S. Ramadevi
Tenure as CEC26 November 1990 – 11 December 1990
SignificanceFirst woman to hold the post of Chief Election Commissioner
Other roles heldGovernor of Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh
Predecessor as CECR. V. S. Peri Sastri
Successor as CECT. N. Seshan

17. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President , to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of the backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures ?

(A) Article 340
(B) Article 342
(C) Article 344
(D) Article 339

Answer: (A) Article 340

Explanation: Under Article 340 of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to appoint a commission consisting of such persons as he thinks fit to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within the territory of India. The commission is mandated to investigate the difficulties under which they labour and to make recommendations as to the steps that should be taken by the Union or any State to remove such difficulties and improve their condition. This is the precise article under which famous commissions like the Kaka Kalelkar Commission (First Backward Classes Commission, 1953) and the Mandal Commission (Second Backward Classes Commission, 1979) were appointed.

Article 340:

AspectDetail
SubjectAppointment of Commission to investigate backward classes
Appointing authorityPresident of India
PurposeInvestigate conditions of socially/educationally backward classes; recommend measures
First CommissionKaka Kalelkar Commission (1953)
Second CommissionMandal Commission (1979)

18. Though all government servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor (as the case may be), two procedural safe-guards are provided for the security of tenure of ‘civil servants’ as distinguished from military personnel by the Constitution of India –
1. A civil servant shall not be dismissed or removed by any authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed
2. No dismissal, removal or reduction in rank shall be ordered against a civil servant unless he has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of the charges brought against him

(A) 1 correct
(B) 2 correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 correct
(D) 1 correct, 2 incorrect

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 correct

Explanation: Article 311 of the Constitution provides two key procedural safeguards for civil servants (as distinguished from military personnel, who fall under Article 310’s pleasure doctrine without these protections). First, a civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed them. Second, no civil servant can be dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank without being given a reasonable opportunity of being heard regarding the charges against them — both statements accurately reflect these safeguards.

Article 311 — Safeguards for Civil Servants:

AspectDetail
Governing ArticleArticle 311
Safeguard 1Cannot be dismissed/removed by authority subordinate to the appointing authority
Safeguard 2Reasonable opportunity of being heard before dismissal/removal/reduction in rank
Applies toCivil servants of the Union and States
Does not apply toMembers of Defence/Military services
Exceptions to Article 311(2) hearing requirementConviction on criminal charge; impracticability of inquiry; security of State grounds
Landmark caseUnion of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985) — upheld exceptions to Art. 311(2)

19. Point out what is not the primary function of the Finance Commission in India

(A) Prepare estimates of consolidated fund of India
(B) Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States
(C) Determine factors governing grants-in-Aid to the States
(D) Recommend to the President the measures needed to augment the consolidated Fund of a State

Answer: (A) Prepare estimates of consolidated fund of India

Explanation: The primary functions of the Finance Commission under Article 280 include recommending the distribution of tax proceeds between the Centre and States, determining principles for grants-in-aid, and recommending measures to augment a State’s Consolidated Fund to supplement Panchayat/Municipality resources. However, preparing “estimates” of the Consolidated Fund of India is not a Finance Commission function at all — this falls under the Union Budget preparation process handled by the Ministry of Finance, making it the correct answer as the function NOT performed by the Finance Commission.

Finance Commission’s Functions:

FunctionPerformed by Finance Commission?
Distribution of net tax proceeds between Centre and StatesYes
Principles governing grants-in-aid to StatesYes
Measures to augment a State’s Consolidated Fund (to supplement Panchayat/Municipality resources)Yes
Preparing estimates of the Consolidated Fund of IndiaNo — this is a Union Budget/Finance Ministry function
Governing ArticleArticle 280
Related body for estimates/budgetMinistry of Finance, via the Union Budget

20. Which Constitutional Amendment Act , provided reservation in admissions in private un-aided educational institutions for students belong to Scheduled Caste/Tribes and other Backward Classes ? (2006)

(A) 92nd Amendment Act
(B) 93rd Amendment Act
(C) 94th Amendment Act
(D) 95th Amendment Act

Answer: (B) 93rd Amendment Act

Explanation: The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2006 inserted Clause (5) into Article 15, empowering the State to make special provisions, including reservation, for socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in admissions to educational institutions — including private unaided institutions — except minority educational institutions protected under Article 30(1).

93rd Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year2006 (enacted; came from 2005 Bill)
Article amendedArticle 15 (inserted Clause 5)
EffectEnables reservation for SEBC/SC/ST in admissions to all educational institutions, including private unaided
ExclusionMinority educational institutions under Article 30(1)
Follow-up legislationCentral Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006
Landmark caseAshoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (2008) — upheld amendment, excluded creamy layer

21. Choose the correct statement/statements :
1. Right to vote is not a Fundamental Right but a Constitutional one
2. Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the right to vote

(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) None

Answer: (C) Both

Explanation: The right to vote in India is not a Fundamental Right but a statutory/constitutional right under Article 326, as held by the Supreme Court in various rulings including People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2003). Additionally, under Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person confined in prison (whether under a sentence or as an undertrial) or in lawful police custody is not entitled to vote, though they may still contest elections in certain circumstances — making both statements correct.

Right to Vote:

AspectDetail
Nature of right to voteConstitutional/statutory right (not a Fundamental Right)
Governing ArticleArticle 326 (universal adult suffrage)
Governing statuteRepresentation of the People Act, 1951, Section 62
Prisoners/undertrialsDisqualified from voting under Section 62(5) of RPA, 1951
Landmark casePUCL v. Union of India (2003)
Exception (contesting)Prisoners can, in certain cases, contest elections (subject to other disqualifications)
Related caseAnukul Chandra Pradhan v. Union of India (1997) — upheld voting bar on prisoners

22. The voting age in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the

(A) 61st Amendment Act
(B) 63rd Amendment Act
(C) 64th Amendment Act
(D) 69th Amendment Act

Answer: (A) 61st Amendment Act

Explanation: The Constitution (61st Amendment) Act, 1989 reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years, by amending Article 326 of the Constitution. This significantly expanded India’s electorate, particularly among younger citizens, ahead of the 1989 general elections.

61st Constitutional Amendment Act:

AspectDetail
Year1989
Article amendedArticle 326
ChangeVoting age reduced from 21 to 18 years
Applicable electionsLok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
Prime Minister at the timeRajiv Gandhi
Immediate effectApplied ahead of 1989 Lok Sabha general elections
SignificanceMajor expansion of India’s electorate, especially youth

23. Within what time should information be provided under RTI in case of life and personal liberty of a person ? (Section 7(1) of Right to Information Act, 2005)

(A) 24 Hrs.
(B) One Week
(C) 48 Hrs.
(D) 30 Days

Answer: (C) 48 Hrs.

Explanation: Under Section 7(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, where information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, the Public Information Officer is required to provide the information within 48 hours of the receipt of the request — a much shorter timeline than the standard 30-day period applicable to ordinary RTI requests.

RTI Act — Response Timelines:

Type of RequestTime Limit
Information concerning life or personal liberty48 hours
Ordinary RTI request30 days from receipt
If request transferred to another PIO30 days (with 5 additional days added)
If involves third-party informationUp to 40 days (30 + 10 days for third-party representation)
Governing SectionSection 7(1), RTI Act, 2005
Appellate authority (first appeal)Within 30 days to designated senior officer
Appellate authority (second appeal)Central/State Information Commission
Penalty for delayRs. 250/day (max Rs. 25,000) on the PIO, under Section 20

24. Right to Information Act came into force in

(A) 12th Oct, 2005
(B) 12th Oct, 2006
(C) 12th Oct, 2007
(D) 12th Oct, 2008

Answer: (A) 12th Oct, 2005

Explanation: The Right to Information Act, 2005 was enacted by Parliament and received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005, but it came into full force on 12 October 2005, giving government departments a 120-day period to prepare for its implementation, including setting up the necessary information disclosure mechanisms and appointing Public Information Officers.

Right to Information Act, 2005:

AspectDetail
Passed by ParliamentMay 2005
Presidential assent15 June 2005
Came into full force12 October 2005
Preparation period120 days from assent
Nodal MinistryMinistry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Key bodies createdCentral Information Commission, State Information Commissions
Landmark predecessorFreedom of Information Act, 2002 (never fully enforced)
SignificanceEmpowers citizens to seek information from public authorities, promoting transparency

Read more:

  1. WBCS Main Judiciary & Landmark Cases Questions and Answers
  2. WBCS Main Centre, State & Local Government Questions and Answers

Source of questions: WBPSC official website

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *