WB miscellaneous previous year question paper 2024 (English Version): all 100 questions
1. Astronauts cannot talk directly to each other on the Moon because
(A) there is no gravity.
(B) there is no atmosphere.
(C) sound travels too fast.
(D) the Moon absorbs all sounds.
Answer: (B) there is no atmosphere.
Explanation:
Sound is a mechanical wave and needs a material medium such as air to travel. The Moon has virtually no atmosphere, so sound cannot pass between astronauts. They communicate by radio, which uses electromagnetic waves that can travel through a vacuum.
Atmosphere and Sound on Different Bodies
| Body | Atmosphere | Can sound travel? | Communication |
|---|---|---|---|
| Moon | Almost none (thin exosphere) | No | Radio |
| Mercury | Thin exosphere | No | Radio |
| Mars | Very thin CO₂ (about 1% of Earth’s pressure) | Weak and muffled | Radio |
| Venus | Very dense CO₂ (about 92 times Earth’s pressure) | Yes, travels well | Radio |
| Earth | 78% N₂, 21% O₂ | Yes | Voice and radio |
| Titan (Saturn’s moon) | Dense nitrogen | Yes | Radio |
| Space (vacuum) | None | No | Radio |
2. 3 men or 5 women can do a work in 12 days. How long will 6 men and 5 women take to finish this work?
(A) 20 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 4 days
(D) 3 days
Answer: (C) 4 days
Explanation:
3 men = 5 women in work capacity, so 1 man = 5/3 women. Then 6 men = 10 women, and 6 men + 5 women = 15 women. If 5 women take 12 days, the total work is 5 × 12 = 60 woman-days. So 15 women need 60 ÷ 15 = 4 days.
3. ‘Cost-push inflation’ is caused by
(A) an increase in aggregate demand.
(B) a decrease in the supply of money.
(C) an increase in the wages or raw materials.
(D) a decrease in the velocity of money.
Answer: (C) an increase in the wages or raw materials.
Explanation:
Cost-push inflation arises on the supply side. When the cost of production rises through higher wages, raw materials or energy prices, producers raise prices to protect their margins. The general price level rises even though demand has not increased.
Types of Inflation and Deflation
| Type | Main cause | Key feature | Typical remedy |
|---|---|---|---|
| Demand-pull | Aggregate demand exceeds supply | “Too much money chasing too few goods” | Tight monetary and fiscal policy |
| Cost-push | Rise in wages, raw material or energy costs | Supply-side shock, falling output | Supply-side measures, productivity gains |
| Stagflation | Supply shocks | High inflation with high unemployment and stagnant growth | Supply reforms, careful policy mix |
| Hyperinflation | Excess money printing | Extremely rapid price rise (over 50% a month) | Monetary reform |
| Creeping inflation | Mild demand growth | Slow price rise (about 2–3% a year) | Usually tolerated |
| Core inflation | Excludes food and fuel | Reflects underlying trend | Used by central banks |
| Reflation | Deliberate policy | Raising prices after deflation | Stimulus |
| Deflation | Weak demand, falling money supply | General fall in prices | Expansionary policy |
4. Who was the first Law Minister of independent India?
(A) C. D. Deshmukh
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar became independent India’s first Law and Justice Minister in Nehru’s cabinet on 15 August 1947. He also chaired the Drafting Committee of the Constituition. He resigned in 1951 over the delay in passing the Hindu Code Bill.
First Holders of Key Posts in Independent India
| Post | First holder | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Law Minister | Dr. B. R. Ambedkar | 1947–1951; chaired the Drafting Committee |
| Prime Minister | Jawaharlal Nehru | 1947–1964 |
| Deputy PM and Home Minister | Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel | Integrated the princely states |
| President | Dr. Rajendra Prasad | 1950–1962 |
| Education Minister | Maulana Abul Kalam Azad | Also set up the UGC framework and IITs |
| Finance Minister | R. K. Shanmukham Chetty | Presented the first budget in Nov 1947 |
| Defence Minister | Baldev Singh | 1947–1952 |
| Health Minister | Rajkumari Amrit Kaur | First woman Cabinet minister |
| Governor-General (Indian) | C. Rajagopalachari | Last Governor-General |
| RBI Governor (Indian) | C. D. Deshmukh | 1943–1949 |
5. An item costing ₹840 was sold by a shopkeeper at a gain of 10% and was also sold by the new buyer at a loss of 5%. The final selling price of the item is
(A) ₹877.80
(B) ₹798
(C) ₹924
(D) ₹837.80
Answer: (A) ₹877.80
Explanation:
The first sale at a 10% gain gives 840 × 1.10 = ₹924. This is the new buyer’s cost price. He sells at a 5% loss, so the final price is 924 × 0.95 = ₹877.80.
6. What is the central bank of India called?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(C) Bank of India
(D) Central Bank of India
Answer: (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India is the country’s central bank. It issues currency, regulates banks and implements monetary policy. It was established on 1 April 1935 under the RBI Act, 1934, and was nationalised on 1 January 1949.
Major Banking and Financial Institutions of India
| Institution | Established | Headquarters | Role |
|---|---|---|---|
| Reserve Bank of India | 1935 | Mumbai | Central bank, currency issuer, monetary policy |
| State Bank of India | 1955 (from Imperial Bank, 1921) | Mumbai | Largest public sector commercial bank |
| Bank of India | 1906 | Mumbai | Public sector commercial bank |
| Central Bank of India | 1911 | Mumbai | Public sector commercial bank |
| NABARD | 1982 | Mumbai | Apex bank for agriculture and rural development |
| SIDBI | 1990 | Lucknow | Small industries financing |
| EXIM Bank | 1982 | Mumbai | Foreign trade financing |
| SEBI | 1988 (statutory 1992) | Mumbai | Securities market regulator |
| IRDAI | 1999 | Hyderabad | Insurance regulator |
7. When a computer is switched on, the BIOS is loaded from
(A) Hard disk
(B) RAM
(C) ROM
(D) CD-ROM
Answer: (C) ROM
Explanation:
BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is firmware stored in a ROM or flash ROM chip on the motherboard. It is non-volatile, so it is available as soon as the power is switched on. It runs the power-on self-test and then loads the operating system from the boot device.
Computer Memory Types
| Memory | Volatile? | Writable? | Typical use |
|---|---|---|---|
| ROM | No | No (factory programmed) | BIOS and boot firmware |
| PROM | No | Once, by user | Custom firmware |
| EPROM | No | Erased by UV light | Firmware development |
| EEPROM / Flash | No | Electrically erasable | Modern BIOS/UEFI, USB drives |
| RAM (DRAM) | Yes | Yes | Main working memory |
| SRAM / Cache | Yes | Yes | CPU cache, very fast |
| Hard disk / SSD | No | Yes | Permanent storage |
| CD-ROM | No | No (read only) | Distributing software |
8. What is the capital of Cabo Verde?
(A) Tunis
(B) Bissau
(C) Praia
(D) Maputo
Answer: (C) Praia
Explanation:
Praia is the capital and largest city of Cabo Verde (Cape Verde), an island nation in the Atlantic Ocean off the coast of West Africa. It is on the island of Santiago. The other cities listed are capitals of different countries.
Capitals of Selected African Countries
| Country | Capital | Region |
|---|---|---|
| Cabo Verde | Praia | Atlantic islands, West Africa |
| Tunisia | Tunis | North Africa |
| Guinea-Bissau | Bissau | West Africa |
| Mozambique | Maputo | Southeast Africa |
| Senegal | Dakar | West Africa |
| The Gambia | Banjul | West Africa |
| Guinea | Conakry | West Africa |
| Sierra Leone | Freetown | West Africa |
| Liberia | Monrovia | West Africa |
| Angola | Luanda | Southwest Africa |
| São Tomé and Príncipe | São Tomé | Gulf of Guinea |
| Equatorial Guinea | Malabo | Central Africa |
9. The 2026 Commonwealth Games were held in
(A) Birmingham, England
(B) Glasgow, Scotland
(C) Cardiff, Wales
(D) Edinburgh, Scotland
Answer: (B) Glasgow, Scotland
Explanation:
The 2026 Commonwealth Games were awarded to Glasgow, Scotland, which stepped in after the Australian state of Victoria withdrew as host. The Games ran from 23 July to 2 August 2026 with a scaled-down sports programme. Glasgow had previously hosted in 2014.
Recent Commonwealth Games Hosts
| Year | Host city | Country |
|---|---|---|
| 2002 | Manchester | England |
| 2006 | Melbourne | Australia |
| 2010 | New Delhi | India |
| 2014 | Glasgow | Scotland |
| 2018 | Gold Coast | Australia |
| 2022 | Birmingham | England |
| 2026 | Glasgow | Scotland |
| 2030 | Ahmedabad | India (centenary Games) |
10. The temple of Somnath, which was destroyed by Mahmud Ghazni, was a temple dedicated to Lord
(A) Vishnu
(B) Shiva
(C) Surya
(D) Krishna
Answer: (B) Shiva
Explanation:
The Somnath temple at Prabhas Patan on the Saurashtra coast of Gujarat is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is regarded as the first of the twelve Jyotirlingas. Mahmud of Ghazni attacked and plundered it in 1025–26 CE. It was rebuilt several times, and the present temple was reconstructed after independence under Sardar Patel’s initiative and inaugurated in 1951 by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
The Twelve Jyotirlingas of Shiva
| Jyotirlinga | Location | State |
|---|---|---|
| Somnath | Prabhas Patan, Veraval | Gujarat |
| Mallikarjuna | Srisailam | Andhra Pradesh |
| Mahakaleshwar | Ujjain | Madhya Pradesh |
| Omkareshwar | Khandwa (Narmada island) | Madhya Pradesh |
| Kedarnath | Rudraprayag | Uttarakhand |
| Bhimashankar | Pune district | Maharashtra |
| Kashi Vishwanath | Varanasi | Uttar Pradesh |
| Trimbakeshwar | Nashik | Maharashtra |
| Vaidyanath | Deoghar | Jharkhand |
| Nageshwar | Near Dwarka | Gujarat |
| Rameshwaram | Rameswaram island | Tamil Nadu |
| Grishneshwar | Near Ellora, Aurangabad | Maharashtra |
11. The chief architect of the Prarthana Samaj in Maharashtra was
(A) R. G. Bhandarkar
(B) M. G. Ranade
(C) Pandita Ramabai
(D) Ganesh Agarkar
Answer: (B) M. G. Ranade
Answer: (B) M. G. Ranade
Explanation:
The Prarthana Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1867 by Atmaram Pandurang with the guidance of Keshab Chandra Sen. Mahadev Govind Ranade became its chief intellectual force and architect. He gave it direction through social reform work such as widow remarriage, women’s education and opposition to caste restrictions.
Prarthana Samaj and Contemporary Reform Movements
| Movement | Founder | Year | Place | Main focus |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Prarthana Samaj | Atmaram Pandurang (leader: M. G. Ranade) | 1867 | Bombay | Monotheism, widow remarriage, women’s education |
| Brahmo Samaj | Raja Ram Mohan Roy | 1828 | Calcutta | Opposed sati and idolatry, rational religion |
| Arya Samaj | Swami Dayanand Saraswati | 1875 | Bombay | “Back to the Vedas”, shuddhi, education |
| Satyashodhak Samaj | Jyotiba Phule | 1873 | Pune | Lower-caste upliftment, anti-Brahmin dominance |
| Ramakrishna Mission | Swami Vivekananda | 1897 | Belur (Calcutta) | Service to humanity, Vedanta |
| Deccan Education Society | Agarkar, Tilak, Chiplunkar | 1884 | Pune | Modern education |
| Servants of India Society | G. K. Gokhale | 1905 | Pune | Public service, training national workers |
| Sharada Sadan | Pandita Ramabai | 1889 | Bombay (later Pune) | Education and shelter for widows |
| Theosophical Society (India HQ) | Annie Besant / Olcott | 1882 | Adyar, Madras | Revival of Hindu thought |
12. If 5 × 4 = 41 and 6 × 6 = 45 according to a certain rule, then 7 × 2 = ?
(A) 51
(B) 53
(C) 55
(D) 57
Answer: (B) 53
Explanation:
The first statement fits the rule a × b = a² + b²: 5² + 4² = 25 + 16 = 41. Applying it to 7 × 2 gives 7² + 2² = 49 + 4 = 53. The second statement (6 × 6 = 45) does not fit this rule, since 6² + 6² = 72, so it appears to be a misprint in the question. Of the options, 53 is the only one that follows from the rule in the first statement.
13. Which of the following States is the full member of BRICS?
(A) Italy
(B) Sweden
(C) Iraq
(D) China
Answer: (D) China
Explanation:
China is one of the founding members of BRICS, which began as BRIC in 2009 with Brazil, Russia, India and China. South Africa joined in 2010. Italy and Sweden are European states outside the grouping. Iraq has not been admitted as a member.
BRICS Full Members
| Country | Joined | Region | Note |
|---|---|---|---|
| Brazil | 2009 (founding) | South America | Founding member |
| Russia | 2009 (founding) | Eurasia | Founding member |
| India | 2009 (founding) | South Asia | Founding member |
| China | 2009 (founding) | East Asia | Founding member |
| South Africa | 2010 | Africa | Added “S”, making BRIC into BRICS |
| Egypt | Jan 2024 | North Africa | Joined in the first expansion |
| Ethiopia | Jan 2024 | East Africa | Joined in the first expansion |
| Iran | Jan 2024 | West Asia | Joined in the first expansion |
| United Arab Emirates | Jan 2024 | West Asia | Joined in the first expansion |
| Indonesia | Jan 2025 | Southeast Asia | Joined as a full member |
| Saudi Arabia | Invited 2024 | West Asia | Has not formally confirmed membership |
The New Development Bank (NDB), the BRICS bank, is headquartered in Shanghai and was set up in 2015. Membership may have changed since my knowledge cutoff, so check a current source for the latest list.
14. Find the odd one out.
(A) Square
(B) Triangle
(C) Circle
(D) Cube
Answer: (D) Cube
Explanation:
Square, triangle and circle are two-dimensional plane figures with only length and breadth. A cube is a three-dimensional solid with length, breadth and height, so it is the odd one out.
2D and 3D Shapes
| Shape | Dimension | Faces / Sides | Edges | Vertices | Key formula |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Square | 2D | 4 sides | – | 4 | Area = s² |
| Triangle | 2D | 3 sides | – | 3 | Area = ½ × b × h |
| Circle | 2D | 1 curved boundary | – | 0 | Area = πr² |
| Rectangle | 2D | 4 sides | – | 4 | Area = l × b |
| Cube | 3D | 6 faces | 12 | 8 | Volume = a³ |
| Cuboid | 3D | 6 faces | 12 | 8 | Volume = l × b × h |
| Sphere | 3D | 1 curved surface | 0 | 0 | Volume = 4/3 πr³ |
| Cylinder | 3D | 2 flat, 1 curved | 2 | 0 | Volume = πr²h |
| Cone | 3D | 1 flat, 1 curved | 1 | 1 | Volume = ⅓πr²h |
15. The smallest halogen atom is
(A) I
(B) Br
(C) Cl
(D) F
Answer: (D) F
Explanation:
Atomic size increases down a group as new electron shells are added. Fluorine is at the top of Group 17 with only two shells, so it is the smallest halogen atom. The size order is F < Cl < Br < I.
Halogens (Group 17): Properties
| Element | Atomic no. | Physical state (room temp.) | Colour | Covalent radius (pm) | Electronegativity (Pauling) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Fluorine (F) | 9 | Gas | Pale yellow | 64 | 3.98 |
| Chlorine (Cl) | 17 | Gas | Greenish yellow | 99 | 3.16 |
| Bromine (Br) | 35 | Liquid | Reddish brown | 114 | 2.96 |
| Iodine (I) | 53 | Solid | Violet-black | 133 | 2.66 |
| Astatine (At) | 85 | Solid (radioactive) | Dark | About 140 | About 2.2 |
| Tennessine (Ts) | 117 | Synthetic, radioactive | – | – | – |
16. Two plane mirrors facing each other are kept 60°. A point is located on the angle bisector. The number of images of the point is
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) infinite
Answer: (C) 5
Explanation:
For two plane mirrors inclined at angle θ, the number of images is n = (360°/θ) − 1 when 360°/θ is even, whatever the position of the object. Here 360°/60° = 6, which is even, so n = 6 − 1 = 5. A point on the angle bisector also gives 5 images.
Number of Images in Inclined Mirrors
| Angle θ | 360°/θ | Images (object on bisector) | Images (object off bisector) |
|---|---|---|---|
| 0° (parallel) | – | Infinite | Infinite |
| 30° | 12 | 11 | 11 |
| 45° | 8 | 7 | 7 |
| 60° | 6 | 5 | 5 |
| 72° | 5 | 4 | 5 |
| 90° | 4 | 3 | 3 |
| 120° | 3 | 2 | 3 |
| 180° | 2 | 1 | 1 |
17. Which Article of the Indian Constitution ensures ‘Equality before the Law’?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
Answer: (A) Article 14
Explanation:
Article 14 says the State shall not deny any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within India. “Equality before law” is a negative concept from British law, and “equal protection of laws” is a positive concept from the American Constitution. Article 14 applies to all persons, citizens and foreigners alike.
Fundamental Rights: Articles 14 to 32
| Article(s) | Provision | Right category |
|---|---|---|
| 14 | Equality before law and equal protection of laws | Right to Equality |
| 15 | Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth | Right to Equality |
| 16 | Equality of opportunity in public employment | Right to Equality |
| 17 | Abolition of untouchability | Right to Equality |
| 18 | Abolition of titles | Right to Equality |
| 19 | Six freedoms (speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, profession) | Right to Freedom |
| 20 | Protection in respect of conviction for offences | Right to Freedom |
| 21 | Protection of life and personal liberty | Right to Freedom |
| 21A | Right to education (ages 6–14) | Right to Freedom |
| 22 | Protection against arbitrary arrest and detention | Right to Freedom |
| 23 | Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labour | Right against Exploitation |
| 24 | Prohibition of child labour in hazardous work (under 14) | Right against Exploitation |
| 25 | Freedom of conscience and free profession of religion | Right to Freedom of Religion |
| 26 | Freedom to manage religious affairs | Right to Freedom of Religion |
| 27 | Freedom from taxes for promotion of a religion | Right to Freedom of Religion |
| 28 | Freedom from religious instruction in certain institutions | Right to Freedom of Religion |
| 29 | Protection of interests of minorities | Cultural and Educational Rights |
| 30 | Right of minorities to establish educational institutions | Cultural and Educational Rights |
| 32 | Right to constitutional remedies (writs) | Right to Constitutional Remedies |
18. COP 31, the 2026 UN Climate Change Conference will be held in
(A) Dubai, UAE
(B) Antalya, Turkey
(C) Paris, France
(D) Nairobi, Kenya
Answer: (B) Antalya, Turkey
Explanation:
COP31 is scheduled for 9–20 November 2026 at the Antalya Expo Center in Antalya, Türkiye. Under a compromise reached at COP30, Türkiye hosts the conference and holds the COP presidency, while Australia, through Chris Bowen, serves as President of Negotiations with exclusive authority over the negotiations. A pre-COP meeting is to be held in the Pacific.
Recent UN Climate Conferences (COP)
| COP | Year | Host city | Country | Key outcome |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| COP21 | 2015 | Paris | France | Paris Agreement |
| COP26 | 2021 | Glasgow | United Kingdom | Glasgow Climate Pact, coal “phase-down” |
| COP27 | 2022 | Sharm el-Sheikh | Egypt | Loss and Damage Fund agreed |
| COP28 | 2023 | Dubai | UAE | First global stocktake, call to transition away from fossil fuels |
| COP29 | 2024 | Baku | Azerbaijan | New climate finance goal |
| COP30 | 2025 | Belém | Brazil | Held at the edge of the Amazon |
| COP31 | 2026 | Antalya | Türkiye (Australia leads negotiations) | Scheduled 9–20 Nov 2026 |
19. Sulphur containing amino acids are
(A) cysteine, methionine
(B) methionine, threonine
(C) threonine, cysteine
(D) cystine, serine
Answer: (A) cysteine, methionine
Explanation:
Cysteine (with a thiol, –SH, group) and methionine (with a thioether, –S–CH₃ group) are the two standard protein amino acids that contain sulphur. Cystine is a dimer formed when two cysteine molecules join through a disulphide bond. It is not one of the 20 standard amino acids.
The 20 Standard Amino Acids
| Amino acid | 3-letter / 1-letter | Side-chain class | Essential in humans? | Contains sulphur? |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Glycine | Gly / G | Nonpolar, aliphatic | No | No |
| Alanine | Ala / A | Nonpolar, aliphatic | No | No |
| Valine | Val / V | Nonpolar, aliphatic | Yes | No |
| Leucine | Leu / L | Nonpolar, aliphatic | Yes | No |
| Isoleucine | Ile / I | Nonpolar, aliphatic | Yes | No |
| Proline | Pro / P | Nonpolar, cyclic | No | No |
| Methionine | Met / M | Nonpolar, sulphur-containing | Yes | Yes |
| Phenylalanine | Phe / F | Aromatic | Yes | No |
| Tyrosine | Tyr / Y | Aromatic, polar | No | No |
| Tryptophan | Trp / W | Aromatic | Yes | No |
| Serine | Ser / S | Polar, uncharged | No | No |
| Threonine | Thr / T | Polar, uncharged | Yes | No |
| Cysteine | Cys / C | Polar, sulphur-containing | No (conditionally) | Yes |
| Asparagine | Asn / N | Polar, uncharged | No | No |
| Glutamine | Gln / Q | Polar, uncharged | No | No |
| Aspartic acid | Asp / D | Acidic | No | No |
| Glutamic acid | Glu / E | Acidic | No | No |
| Lysine | Lys / K | Basic | Yes | No |
| Arginine | Arg / R | Basic | No (conditionally, in children) | No |
| Histidine | His / H | Basic | Yes | No |
20. Which among the following is called as ‘Portuguese man of war’?
(A) Pennatula
(B) Physalia
(C) Adamsia
(D) Metridium
Answer: (B) Physalia
Explanation:
Physalia physalis is the “Portuguese man of war”. It is not a single animal but a floating colony of specialised polyps and medusoids (a siphonophore) in class Hydrozoa, phylum Cnidaria. A gas-filled float lets it drift at the surface, and its long tentacles carry stinging cells (nematocysts).
Common Names of Cnidarians
| Genus | Common name | Class | Notes |
|---|---|---|---|
| Physalia | Portuguese man of war | Hydrozoa | Floating siphonophore colony with a gas float |
| Velella | By-the-wind sailor | Hydrozoa | Floating colony with a sail |
| Porpita | Blue button | Hydrozoa | Floating colonial hydrozoan |
| Obelia | Sea fur | Hydrozoa | Colonial, shows polyp and medusa stages |
| Hydra | Freshwater hydra | Hydrozoa | Solitary, freshwater |
| Millepora | Fire coral | Hydrozoa | Painful sting |
| Aurelia | Moon jelly | Scyphozoa | True jellyfish |
| Cyanea | Lion’s mane jellyfish | Scyphozoa | Largest jellyfish |
| Pennatula | Sea pen | Anthozoa | Feather-shaped colony |
| Adamsia | Sea anemone | Anthozoa | Lives with hermit crabs |
| Metridium | Plumose sea anemone | Anthozoa | Solitary anemone |
| Gorgonia | Sea fan | Anthozoa | Colonial, horny skeleton |
| Corallium | Red or precious coral | Anthozoa | Used in jewellery |
| Tubipora | Organ-pipe coral | Anthozoa | Red tubular skeleton |
| Meandrina | Brain coral | Anthozoa | Grooved, brain-like surface |
21. Which one of these fighter aircraft was purchased by India from France?
(A) MiG-21
(B) MiG-27
(C) F-16
(D) Rafale
Answer: (D) Rafale
Explanation:
The Rafale is a French multirole fighter made by Dassault Aviation. India bought 36 of them under a government-to-government deal signed in September 2016, and the first jets reached Ambala in July 2020. The MiG-21 and MiG-27 are of Soviet origin. The F-16 is American, and India has never bought it.
Major Fighter Aircraft of the Indian Air Force
| Aircraft | Country of origin | Manufacturer | Role | Note |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Rafale | France | Dassault Aviation | Multirole | 36 ordered in 2016; first batch arrived in 2020 |
| Rafale-M | France | Dassault Aviation | Carrier-based multirole | 26 ordered for the Navy in April 2025 |
| Mirage 2000 (Vajra) | France | Dassault Aviation | Multirole | Inducted 1985; used in Kargil 1999 |
| MiG-21 | USSR | Mikoyan-Gurevich | Interceptor | Inducted 1963; phased out in 2025 |
| MiG-27 | USSR | Mikoyan-Gurevich | Ground attack | Built under licence by HAL; retired 2019 |
| MiG-29 | USSR / Russia | Mikoyan | Air superiority | In service |
| Su-30MKI | Russia | Sukhoi / HAL | Air superiority | Backbone of the fleet |
| Jaguar | UK / France | SEPECAT / HAL | Deep strike | In service |
| Tejas (LCA) | India | HAL | Light combat aircraft | Indigenous |
22. The Asiatic Society of Bengal (1784) owes its origin to who?
(A) William Jones
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) James Mackintosh
(D) James Prinsep
Answer: (A) William Jones
Explanation:
Sir William Jones, a judge of the Supreme Court at Calcutta and a scholar of oriental languages, founded the Asiatic Society on 15 January 1784. Governor-General Warren Hastings supported the effort but did not found the Society. Its journal, Asiatic Researches, began in 1788.
Oriental Studies and Early British-Era Institutions
| Institution / Event | Year | Founder / Person | Place |
|---|---|---|---|
| Calcutta Madrasa | 1781 | Warren Hastings | Calcutta |
| Asiatic Society of Bengal | 1784 | Sir William Jones | Calcutta |
| Asiatic Researches (journal) | 1788 | Asiatic Society | Calcutta |
| Sanskrit College | 1791 | Jonathan Duncan | Benares |
| Literary Society of Bombay | 1804 | James Mackintosh | Bombay |
| Fort William College | 1800 | Lord Wellesley | Calcutta |
| Hindu College | 1817 | David Hare and Raja Ram Mohan Roy (with others) | Calcutta |
| Deciphering of Brahmi script | 1837 | James Prinsep | Calcutta |
| Archaeological Survey of India | 1861 | Alexander Cunningham | Calcutta |
23. An association of interacting species inhabiting a defined area is
(A) Individual
(B) Community
(C) Ecotype
(D) Population
Answer: (B) Community
Explanation:
A community is the set of different species (plants, animals and microbes) that live and interact in the same area. A population has individuals of one species only, and an individual is a single organism. An ecotype is a genetically distinct form of a species adapted to a particular habitat.
Levels of Ecological Organisation
| Level | Meaning | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Individual | A single organism | One tiger |
| Population | Individuals of the same species in an area | All tigers in a reserve |
| Community | Interacting populations of different species in an area | Tigers, deer, trees and insects in a forest |
| Ecosystem | Community plus its non-living environment | A forest ecosystem |
| Biome | Large region with similar climate and life forms | Tropical rainforest, tundra |
| Biosphere | All the ecosystems of Earth | The entire living world |
| Ecotype | Locally adapted genetic variant of a species | Alpine and lowland forms of one plant |
| Habitat | Place where an organism lives | A pond |
| Niche | Functional role of a species | Predator, pollinator |
24. Which fundamental right cannot be suspended even during a national emergency?
(A) Right to freedom of speech
(B) Right to equality
(C) Right to life and personal liberty
(D) Right to constitutional remedies
Answer: (C) Right to life and personal liberty
Explanation:
Under Article 359, the President can suspend the right to move courts for enforcement of Fundamental Rights during an emergency. The 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) made Articles 20 and 21 non-suspendable. Article 19 rights lapse automatically only when an emergency is declared on grounds of war or external aggression, under Article 358.
Emergency Provisions and Fundamental Rights
| Article | Provision | Effect on Fundamental Rights |
|---|---|---|
| 352 | National Emergency (war, external aggression, armed rebellion) | Allows Articles 358 and 359 to apply |
| 358 | Suspension of Article 19 | Automatic, only for war or external aggression |
| 359 | Suspension of the right to move courts | By Presidential order; excludes Articles 20 and 21 |
| 20 | Protection in respect of conviction for offences | Cannot be suspended |
| 21 | Protection of life and personal liberty | Cannot be suspended |
| 356 | President’s Rule in a State | No suspension of Fundamental Rights |
| 360 | Financial Emergency | No suspension of Fundamental Rights |
| 44th Amendment (1978) | Changed “internal disturbance” to “armed rebellion” | Strengthened safeguards against misuse |
| 42nd Amendment (1976) | Extended emergency powers | Later rolled back by the 44th Amendment |
25. Find the next number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(A) 40
(B) 42
(C) 44
(D) 46
Answer: (B) 42
Explanation:
Each term equals n × (n + 1): 1×2 = 2, 2×3 = 6, 3×4 = 12, 4×5 = 20, 5×6 = 30. The next term is 6 × 7 = 42. The differences between terms (4, 6, 8, 10) rise by 2, so the next difference is 12 and 30 + 12 = 42.
26. In which year did Swami Vivekananda deliver his legendary speech at the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago?
(A) 1891 A.D.
(B) 1893 A.D.
(C) 1895 A.D.
(D) 1897 A.D.
Answer: (B) 1893 A.D.
Explanation:
Swami Vivekananda addressed the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago on 11 September 1893. He began with “Sisters and Brothers of America” and presented Vedanta and religious tolerance to a world audience.
Swami Vivekananda: Timeline
| Year | Event |
|---|---|
| 1863 | Born Narendranath Datta in Calcutta (12 January, observed as National Youth Day) |
| 1881 | Met Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa at Dakshineswar |
| 1886 | Death of Ramakrishna; Narendranath became a monk |
| 1892 | Meditated on the rock at Kanyakumari |
| 1893 | Addressed the Parliament of the World’s Religions, Chicago (11 September) |
| 1897 | Founded the Ramakrishna Mission (1 May) |
| 1898 | Belur Math established near Calcutta |
| 1899 | Started the journal Prabuddha Bharata in English; second visit to the West |
| 1902 | Died at Belur Math (4 July) |
27. In which state of India, Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK) party was formed the coalition government in 2026?
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Telangana
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (D) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
TVK came to power in Tamil Nadu after the 2026 Legislative Assembly election, with Vijay as Chief Minister. The Congress left the Secular Progressive Alliance (SPA) and joined the TVK government, while four other SPA parties backed the TVK-led coalition from outside. Vijay took oath as Chief Minister on 10 May 2026.
Tamil Nadu 2026 Government Formation
| Item | Details |
|---|---|
| Polling date | 23 April 2026 |
| Result declared | 4 May 2026 |
| TVK seats | 107 out of 234 (majority mark is 118) |
| Chief Minister | C. Joseph Vijay (TVK), sworn in 10 May 2026 |
| Outgoing Chief Minister | M. K. Stalin (DMK), resigned 5 May 2026 |
| Governor | Rajendra Arlekar |
| Coalition partner in government | Indian National Congress (ministers sworn in 21 May 2026) |
| Outside supporters | CPI, CPI(M), VCK, IUML |
| Trust vote | Won with 144 votes in favour |
| Council of Ministers | Chief Minister plus 34 Cabinet ministers; no Deputy Chief Minister |
| Significance | First non-Dravidian party government in the state since 1967 |
28. The Gond is one of the major tribal communities of
(A) Central India
(B) Punjab
(C) Kerala
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: (A) Central India
Explanation:
The Gonds are one of the largest tribal communities in India, living mainly in the central Indian belt: Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, eastern Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. They speak Gondi, a Dravidian language, and are known for the Gond kingdoms such as Garha-Mandla.
Major Tribes of India by Region
| Region | Tribe | States / Area | Note |
|---|---|---|---|
| Central India | Gond | MP, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Odisha | Among the largest tribes in India |
| Central India | Baiga | MP, Chhattisgarh | Forest dwellers |
| Central India | Bhil | MP, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra | Skilled archers |
| Eastern India | Santhal | Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha | Largest in the region; Santhal rebellion 1855 |
| Eastern India | Munda, Oraon | Jharkhand | Birsa Munda led the Ulgulan |
| North-East | Khasi, Garo | Meghalaya | Matrilineal societies |
| North-East | Naga | Nagaland | Many sub-tribes |
| South India | Toda, Irular | Tamil Nadu | Toda are in the Nilgiris |
| South India | Kurichiyar, Paniya | Kerala | Wayanad region |
| Jammu and Kashmir | Gujjar-Bakarwal, Gaddi | J&K, Himachal Pradesh | Pastoral groups |
| Western India | Warli | Maharashtra, Gujarat | Known for Warli painting |
| Andaman and Nicobar | Jarawa, Onge, Sentinelese | Andaman Islands | Particularly vulnerable groups |
Punjab has no notified Scheduled Tribes.
29. A man rows 750 m in 675 seconds against the stream and returns in 7½ minutes. Find his rowing speed in still water.
(A) 3 km/hr
(B) 4 km/hr
(C) 5 km/hr
(D) 6 km/hr
Answer: (C) 5 km/hr
Explanation: Upstream speed = 750 m ÷ 675 s = 10/9 m/s = 4 km/hr. Downstream, 7½ minutes = 450 s, so speed = 750 ÷ 450 = 5/3 m/s = 6 km/hr. Speed in still water = (6 + 4) ÷ 2 = 5 km/hr.
30. The smallest five-digit number which is divisible by 12, 18 and 21 is
(A) 10224
(B) 30256
(C) 10080
(D) 50321
Answer: (C) 10080
Explanation:
A number divisible by 12, 18 and 21 must be a multiple of their LCM. 12 = 2² × 3, 18 = 2 × 3² and 21 = 3 × 7, so LCM = 2² × 3² × 7 = 252. The smallest five-digit number is 10000. Since 10000 ÷ 252 gives 39 with a remainder, the next multiple is 252 × 40 = 10080.
31. Akbar introduced the Mansabdari System in order to
(A) create a loyal band of followers.
(B) distribute favours among his supporters.
(C) organize the nobility as well as his army.
(D) satisfy the natural ego of his officers.
Answer: (C) organize the nobility as well as his army.
Explanation:
Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system around 1570–71 to organize the Mughal nobility and the army in a single graded structure. Each officer (mansabdar) was given a numerical rank (mansab) that fixed his status, salary and the number of soldiers he had to maintain. The system also tied the nobility to the emperor and prevented any group of nobles from becoming too powerful.
Mansabdari System: Key Features
| Feature | Details |
|---|---|
| Introduced by | Akbar, c. 1570–71 |
| Meaning of “mansab” | Rank or position |
| Zat | Personal rank, which fixed status and salary |
| Sawar | Number of cavalrymen the mansabdar had to maintain |
| Range of ranks | From 10 to 10,000 (higher ranks mostly reserved for princes) |
| Payment | In cash, or by assignment of a jagir (right to collect revenue) |
| Dagh and Chehra | Branding of horses and descriptive rolls of soldiers, to prevent fraud |
| Hereditary? | No; the post ended with the mansabdar’s death |
| Appointment, promotion, dismissal | By the emperor alone |
| Open to | Persons of any background, including Mughals, Rajputs, Persians and Afghans |
Other Akbar-Era Administrative Measures
| Measure | Year | Details |
|---|---|---|
| Ibadat Khana | 1575 | Hall at Fatehpur Sikri for religious discussions |
| Zabt and Dahsala system | 1580 | Revenue system worked out with Raja Todar Mal |
| Din-i-Ilahi | 1582 | Syncretic religious order |
| Sulh-i-kul | – | Policy of universal peace and tolerance |
| Abolition of jizya | 1564 | Tax on non-Muslims removed |
32. To which of the following dynasties did Karikala, the famous king of Sangam period belong?
(A) Chera
(B) Chola
(C) Pandya
(D) Pallava
Answer: (B) Chola
32.
Answer: (B) Chola
Explanation:
Karikala was the greatest early Chola king of the Sangam age. He is credited with winning the Battle of Venni, in which he defeated a coalition of the Cheras, Pandyas and eleven minor chiefs. He is also associated with building embankments on the Kaveri river and with the Chola capital at Puhar (Kaveripattinam).
Sangam Age Dynasties
| Dynasty | Capital | Port | Emblem | Famous rulers |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Chera | Vanji | Muziris (Musiri), Tondi | Bow and arrow | Udiyanjeral, Nedunjeral Athan, Senguttuvan |
| Chola | Uraiyur; later Puhar | Puhar (Kaveripattinam) | Tiger | Karikala, Killivalavan, Perunarkilli |
| Pandya | Madurai | Korkai | Fish | Nedunjeliyan, Mudukudumi Peruvaluthi |
| Pallava (not a Sangam dynasty) | Kanchipuram | Mamallapuram | Bull | Emerged from about the 6th century CE |
Sangam Literature
| Work | Type |
|---|---|
| Tolkappiyam | Grammar, by Tolkappiyar |
| Ettuthokai | Eight anthologies |
| Pattuppattu | Ten idylls (includes Pattinappalai on Karikala) |
| Silappadikaram | Epic, by Ilango Adigal |
| Manimekalai | Epic, by Sittalai Sattanar |
| Thirukkural | Ethical work, by Thiruvalluvar |
33. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 4 : 3 and 2 : 3. The ratio in which these mixtures should be mixed to form a new mixture containing half milk and half water is
(A) 7 : 5
(B) 6 : 5
(C) 5 : 6
(D) 4 : 3
Answer: (A) 7 : 5
Explanation:
In vessel A, milk is 4/7 of the mixture, and in vessel B it is 2/5. The final mixture has 1/2 milk. By the rule of alligation, the ratio of A to B is (1/2 − 2/5) : (4/7 − 1/2) = 1/10 : 1/14 = 7 : 5.
34. Which of the following is the autobiography of Nelson Mandela?
(A) All About Love: New Visions
(B) The Wretched of the Earth
(C) Waiting for a Visa
(D) Long Walk to Freedom
Answer: (D) Long Walk to Freedom
Explanation:
Long Walk to Freedom (1994) is the autobiography of Nelson Mandela. It covers his life from his childhood in the Transkei through the anti-apartheid struggle and 27 years in prison to his election as South Africa’s first Black president in 1994.
Books and Their Authors
| Book | Author | Type |
|---|---|---|
| Long Walk to Freedom | Nelson Mandela | Autobiography (1994) |
| The Wretched of the Earth | Frantz Fanon | Anti-colonial political work (1961) |
| All About Love: New Visions | bell hooks | Non-fiction on love (2000) |
| Waiting for a Visa | B. R. Ambedkar | Autobiographical sketch |
| My Experiments with Truth | M. K. Gandhi | Autobiography |
| An Autobiography (Toward Freedom) | Jawaharlal Nehru | Autobiography (1936) |
| Wings of Fire | A. P. J. Abdul Kalam | Autobiography |
| The Story of My Life | Helen Keller | Autobiography (1903) |
| I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings | Maya Angelou | Autobiography (1969) |
| Playing It My Way | Sachin Tendulkar | Autobiography |
35. Who is popular in Indian history as ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer: (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation:
Dadabhai Naoroji is known as the “Grand Old Man of India”. He was a pioneer of Indian nationalism and the first Indian elected to the British House of Commons (1892). His “drain of wealth” theory, set out in Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, showed how British rule drained India’s resources.
Titles of Indian Leaders
| Leader | Title / Epithet |
|---|---|
| Dadabhai Naoroji | Grand Old Man of India |
| Mohandas K. Gandhi | Mahatma, Father of the Nation |
| Bal Gangadhar Tilak | Lokmanya |
| Lala Lajpat Rai | Punjab Kesari (Lion of Punjab) |
| Surendranath Banerjee | Rashtraguru |
| Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel | Iron Man of India |
| Subhas Chandra Bose | Netaji |
| Sarojini Naidu | Nightingale of India |
| C. R. Das | Deshbandhu |
| Madan Mohan Malaviya | Mahamana |
| Abdul Ghaffar Khan | Frontier Gandhi |
| C. Rajagopalachari | Rajaji |
| B. R. Ambedkar | Babasaheb |
| G. K. Gokhale | Political guru of Gandhi |
Dadabhai Naoroji: Key Facts
| Item | Detail |
|---|---|
| Founded East India Association | 1866, London |
| President of Indian National Congress | 1886, 1893 and 1906 |
| Elected to House of Commons | 1892 (Finsbury Central, Liberal Party) |
| Book | Poverty and Un-British Rule in India (1901) |
36. When a number is divided by 56, the remainder obtained is 29. What will be the remainder when the number is divided by 8?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 7
Answer: (B) 5
Explanation:
The number can be written as N = 56k + 29. Since 56 is divisible by 8, the term 56k leaves remainder 0 when divided by 8. So the remainder depends only on 29 ÷ 8, which is 3 remainder 5.
37. Costs of two watches were in the ratio 16 : 23. The cost of the first watch increases by 10% and that of the second by ₹477. The new costs of the two watches are in the ratio 11 : 20. The new price of the second watch (in ₹) is
(A) 932
(B) 1,219
(C) 1,696
(D) 848
Answer: (C) ₹1,696
Explanation:
Let the original costs be 16x and 23x. The new costs are 16x × 1.10 = 17.6x and 23x + 477. Setting 17.6x ÷ (23x + 477) = 11/20 gives 352x = 253x + 5247, so x = 53. The new price of the second watch is 23 × 53 + 477 = 1219 + 477 = ₹1,696.
38. The Simla Agreement was passed at which session of the Congress?
(A) Lahore
(B) Karachi
(C) Lucknow
(D) Calcutta
Answer: (D) Calcutta
Congress Sessions and Simla-Related Events
| Event | Year | Place | President / Leader | Key outcome |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| First INC session | 1885 | Bombay | W. C. Bonnerjee | Founding of Congress |
| Simla Deputation | 1906 | Simla | Aga Khan (led the deputation) | Demand for separate electorates |
| Calcutta session | 1906 | Calcutta | Dadabhai Naoroji | Declared “Swaraj” as the goal |
| Surat session | 1907 | Surat | Rash Behari Ghosh | Split between Moderates and Extremists |
| Lucknow session | 1916 | Lucknow | A. C. Majumdar | Congress–League Lucknow Pact; reunion |
| Calcutta session | 1928 | Calcutta | Motilal Nehru | Nehru Report discussed |
| Lahore session | 1929 | Lahore | Jawaharlal Nehru | Purna Swaraj declared |
| Karachi session | 1931 | Karachi | Sardar Patel | Fundamental Rights resolution; Gandhi–Irwin Pact endorsed |
| Simla Conference | 1945 | Simla | Lord Wavell | Failed to resolve the Congress–League deadlock |
| Simla Agreement | 1972 | Simla | Indira Gandhi and Z. A. Bhutto | India–Pakistan peace framework after the 1971 war |
39. If CAT is coded as DBU, how will DOG be coded?
(A) EPH
(B) EOG
(C) FPH
(D) EPG
Answer: (A) EPH
Explanation:
Each letter of CAT is replaced by the next letter of the alphabet: C→D, A→B, T→U. Applying the same shift to DOG gives D→E, O→P, G→H, so DOG is coded as EPH.
40. Which radiation can pass through a sheet of paper but is stopped by a few millimeters of aluminium sheet?
(A) Alpha rays
(B) Beta rays
(C) Gamma rays
(D) Visible rays
Answer: (B) Beta rays
Explanation: Beta rays are fast-moving electrons. They have enough penetrating power to pass through paper but are stopped by a few millimetres of aluminium. Alpha rays are stopped by paper, and gamma rays need thick lead or concrete.
Properties of Radiations
| Property | Alpha (α) | Beta (β) | Gamma (γ) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Nature | Helium nucleus (2 protons, 2 neutrons) | Electron (or positron) | Electromagnetic radiation (photon) |
| Charge | +2 | −1 | 0 |
| Relative mass | About 4 u | About 1/1836 u | Zero |
| Speed | About 5–10% of light speed | Up to about 99% of light speed | Speed of light |
| Ionising power | Highest | Moderate | Lowest |
| Penetrating power | Lowest | Moderate | Highest |
| Stopped by | Paper, or skin | A few mm of aluminium | Thick lead or concrete |
| Deflection in electric/magnetic field | Yes (towards the negative plate) | Yes (towards the positive plate) | No |
41. Which one is the primary ore of iron?
(A) Hematite
(B) Bauxite
(C) Malachite
(D) Limestone
Answer: (A) Hematite
Explanation:
Hematite (Fe₂O₃) is the primary and most important ore of iron. It contains about 70% iron and is the main ore used in blast furnaces. Bauxite is the ore of aluminium, malachite is an ore of copper, and limestone is used as a flux in iron extraction.
Important Ores of Metals
| Ore | Chemical formula | Metal | Notes |
|---|---|---|---|
| Hematite | Fe₂O₃ | Iron | About 70% iron; main iron ore |
| Magnetite | Fe₃O₄ | Iron | About 72% iron; highest iron content; magnetic |
| Limonite | 2Fe₂O₃·3H₂O | Iron | Hydrated oxide; about 40–60% iron |
| Siderite | FeCO₃ | Iron | About 48% iron |
| Iron pyrites | FeS₂ | Iron | Mostly used for sulphur, not for iron |
| Bauxite | Al₂O₃·2H₂O | Aluminium | Main ore of aluminium |
| Malachite | CuCO₃·Cu(OH)₂ | Copper | Green carbonate ore |
| Copper pyrites | CuFeS₂ | Copper | Chief ore of copper |
| Cuprite | Cu₂O | Copper | Red oxide ore |
| Zinc blende | ZnS | Zinc | Sulphide ore |
| Calamine | ZnCO₃ | Zinc | Carbonate ore |
| Galena | PbS | Lead | Chief ore of lead |
| Cinnabar | HgS | Mercury | Chief ore of mercury |
| Cassiterite | SnO₂ | Tin | Chief ore of tin |
| Limestone | CaCO₃ | – | Flux in blast furnace |
42. The product of two numbers is 1280 and their H.C.F. is 8. The L.C.M. of the numbers will be
(A) 160
(B) 150
(C) 120
(D) 140
Answer: (A) 160
Explanation:
For any two numbers, product = H.C.F. × L.C.M. So L.C.M. = 1280 ÷ 8 = 160.
43. In the context of financial markets, what does ‘SEBI’ stand for?
(A) State Economic Bureau of India
(B) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(C) Stock Exchange and Banking Institution
(D) Social Enterprise and Business Initiative
Answer: (B) Securities and Exchange Board of India
Explanation:
SEBI is the regulator of India’s securities market. It was set up in 1988 as an executive body and given statutory powers by the SEBI Act, 1992. Its role is to protect investors, regulate stock exchanges and intermediaries, and promote development of the securities market.
Financial Regulators in India
| Regulator | Full form | Established | Headquarters | Area regulated |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| RBI | Reserve Bank of India | 1935 | Mumbai | Banking and monetary policy |
| SEBI | Securities and Exchange Board of India | 1988 (statutory 1992) | Mumbai | Securities market |
| IRDAI | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India | 1999 | Hyderabad | Insurance |
| PFRDA | Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority | 2003 | New Delhi | Pension funds |
| IFSCA | International Financial Services Centres Authority | 2020 | GIFT City, Gandhinagar | International financial services |
| NABARD | National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development | 1982 | Mumbai | Agriculture and rural credit |
| SIDBI | Small Industries Development Bank of India | 1990 | Lucknow | Small-scale industry finance |
44. Keoladeo National Park is internationally renowned for its
(A) coral reef ecosystem.
(B) bird sanctuary.
(C) desert lake ecosystem.
(D) mangrove forest.
Answer: (B) bird sanctuary.
Explanation:
Keoladeo National Park (Keoladeo Ghana) is at Bharatpur in Rajasthan and is one of the world’s best-known bird habitats. It is a wetland that attracts thousands of resident and migratory waterfowl in winter. It was declared a national park in 1982 and a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985, and it is also a Ramsar site.
Major Bird Habitats and Wetlands of India
| Place | State | Type | Note |
|---|---|---|---|
| Keoladeo National Park | Rajasthan | Freshwater wetland | UNESCO World Heritage Site (1985); Ramsar site |
| Chilika Lake | Odisha | Brackish lagoon | Largest coastal lagoon in India; winter migratory birds |
| Sultanpur National Park | Haryana | Wetland | Migratory birds near Gurugram |
| Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary | Gujarat | Lake | Ramsar site |
| Sambhar Lake | Rajasthan | Salt lake | Largest inland salt lake; flamingos |
| Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary | Karnataka | River islands | On the Kaveri near Srirangapatna |
| Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary | Tamil Nadu | Tank | One of the oldest bird sanctuaries in India |
| Loktak Lake (Keibul Lamjao NP) | Manipur | Floating phumdis | Home of the sangai deer |
| Bhitarkanika | Odisha | Mangrove | Mangrove forest and Olive Ridley nesting |
| Sundarbans | West Bengal | Mangrove | Royal Bengal tiger |
| Gulf of Mannar | Tamil Nadu | Coral reef | Marine national park |
| Desert National Park | Rajasthan | Desert | Great Indian Bustard |
45. Which one of the following has the highest oxidizing power?
(A) Cl₂
(B) Br₂
(C) F₂
(D) I₂
Answer: (C) F₂
Explanation:
Oxidising power is the tendency to gain electrons. Fluorine has the highest standard reduction potential (+2.87 V) of all the halogens, so it is the strongest oxidising agent. Oxidising power decreases down the group: F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂.
Halogens: Oxidising Power and Related Data
| Halogen | Standard reduction potential E° (V) | Oxidising power | Bond dissociation enthalpy (kJ/mol) | Physical state |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| F₂ | +2.87 | Highest | 158 | Pale yellow gas |
| Cl₂ | +1.36 | High | 242 | Greenish-yellow gas |
| Br₂ | +1.09 | Moderate | 193 | Reddish-brown liquid |
| I₂ | +0.54 | Lowest | 151 | Violet-black solid |
A halogen higher in the group displaces a lower one from its halide solution. For example, Cl₂ displaces Br⁻ and I⁻, but I₂ does not displace Cl⁻ or Br⁻.
46. 2/3 of three-fourth of a number is
(A) 1/2 of the number.
(B) 1/5 of the number.
(C) 7/9 of the number.
(D) 15/13 of the number.
Answer: (A) 1/2 of the number.
Explanation:
Three-fourth of a number is (3/4)x, and 2/3 of that is (2/3) × (3/4) × x = 6x/12 = x/2. So the result is 1/2 of the number.
47. Disease triangle consists of
(A) pathogen, primary host and secondary host.
(B) host, pathogen and environment.
(C) primary, secondary and tertiary host.
(D) host, parasite and a pesticide.
Answer: (B) host, pathogen and environment.
Explanation:
The disease triangle is a model in plant pathology showing that disease develops only when three factors come together: a susceptible host, a virulent pathogen and an environment favourable to the disease. If any one of the three is missing or unfavourable, disease does not develop or is much reduced.
Disease Triangle Components
| Component | What it means | Examples of influencing factors | Control approach |
|---|---|---|---|
| Host | Susceptible plant | Genetic resistance, age, plant density | Resistant varieties, healthy seed |
| Pathogen | Disease-causing organism, which must be virulent | Fungi, bacteria, viruses, nematodes | Fungicides, sanitation, quarantine |
| Environment | Conditions favouring infection | Temperature, humidity, rainfall, soil moisture, pH | Crop rotation, drainage, spacing, irrigation timing |
| Time (fourth factor) | Adds duration to the triangle, making a “disease tetrahedron” or pyramid | Length of favourable conditions | Timely spraying and sowing |
48. Which of the following is not a stem modification?
(A) Bulb of onion
(B) Corm of arbi
(C) Tuber of sweet potato
(D) Tuber of potato
Answer: (C) Tuber of sweet potato
Explanation:
The sweet potato tuber is a modified root (an adventitious storage root), not a stem. The onion bulb, arbi (colocasia) corm and potato tuber are all modified underground stems. Potato tubers have eyes (nodes) and buds, which show they are stem structures.
Modifications of Stems and Roots
| Modification | Organ | Example | Function |
|---|---|---|---|
| Bulb | Stem | Onion, garlic | Food storage |
| Corm | Stem | Arbi (colocasia), saffron, gladiolus | Food storage |
| Tuber | Stem | Potato | Food storage |
| Rhizome | Stem | Ginger, turmeric | Storage and perennation |
| Runner | Stem | Grass | Vegetative propagation |
| Stolon | Stem | Jasmine, strawberry | Vegetative propagation |
| Sucker | Stem | Mint, chrysanthemum | Vegetative propagation |
| Offset | Stem | Water hyacinth | Vegetative propagation |
| Tendril | Stem | Grape vine, cucumber | Climbing |
| Thorn | Stem | Citrus, Bougainvillea | Protection |
| Phylloclade | Stem | Opuntia | Photosynthesis, water storage |
| Tuberous root | Root | Sweet potato | Food storage |
| Fusiform root | Root | Radish | Food storage |
| Napiform root | Root | Turnip, beet | Food storage |
| Conical root | Root | Carrot | Food storage |
| Prop roots | Root | Banyan | Support |
| Stilt roots | Root | Maize, sugarcane | Support |
| Pneumatophores | Root | Mangroves (Rhizophora) | Respiration |
| Haustoria | Root | Cuscuta | Absorption from host |
49. How many permanent members are there in the Security Council of the United Nations?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 5
Answer: (D) 5
Explanation:
The UN Security Council has five permanent members: the United States, the United Kingdom, France, Russia and China. They hold veto power over substantive resolutions. The Council has 15 members in total, the other 10 being non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly for two-year terms.
Permanent Members of the UN Security Council
| Country | Notes |
|---|---|
| United States | Founding permanent member (1945) |
| United Kingdom | Founding permanent member (1945) |
| France | Founding permanent member (1945) |
| Russia | Took the seat of the USSR in 1991 |
| China | People’s Republic of China took the seat from the Republic of China in 1971 |
Security Council: Key Facts
| Item | Detail |
|---|---|
| Total members | 15 (5 permanent, 10 non-permanent) |
| Non-permanent term | 2 years, not immediately re-electable |
| Headquarters | New York |
| Voting | 9 affirmative votes needed, with no veto by a permanent member |
| Presidency | Rotates monthly among members |
50. Which of the following is a direct tax?
(A) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
(B) Value Added Tax (VAT)
(C) Corporate Tax
(D) Customs Duty
Answer: (C) Corporate Tax
Explanation:
A direct tax is paid directly to the government by the person or entity on whom it is levied, and the burden cannot be shifted to someone else. Corporate tax is charged on a company’s profits. GST, VAT and customs duty are indirect taxes, collected from consumers through the price of goods and services.
Direct and Indirect Taxes in India
| Tax | Type | Levied by | Note |
|---|---|---|---|
| Income Tax | Direct | Centre | On individual and HUF income |
| Corporate Tax | Direct | Centre | On company profits |
| Capital Gains Tax | Direct | Centre | On profit from sale of assets |
| Securities Transaction Tax | Direct | Centre | On securities trades |
| Goods and Services Tax (GST) | Indirect | Centre and States | In force since 1 July 2017 (101st Amendment) |
| Value Added Tax (VAT) | Indirect | States | Largely subsumed in GST in 2017 |
| Customs Duty | Indirect | Centre | On imports and exports |
| Excise Duty | Indirect | Centre | Now mainly on petroleum and alcohol items |
| Service Tax | Indirect | Centre | Subsumed in GST in 2017 |
| Stamp Duty | Indirect (on documents) | States | On property and legal documents |
51. Which of the following river does not make a delta?
(A) Tapti
(B) Kaveri
(C) Krishna
(D) Godavari
Answer: (A) Tapti
Explanation:
The Tapti flows westward through a rift valley and falls into the Arabian Sea through an estuary, not a delta. West-flowing rivers run fast over a short, steep course and have little sediment to deposit. The Kaveri, Krishna and Godavari flow east, slow down on the wide coastal plain and form deltas in the Bay of Bengal.
Rivers: Delta or Estuary
| River | Flows into | Landform at mouth | Note |
|---|---|---|---|
| Tapti | Arabian Sea (Gulf of Khambhat) | Estuary | West-flowing; rift valley river |
| Narmada | Arabian Sea (Gulf of Khambhat) | Estuary | Longest west-flowing river of peninsular India |
| Mahi | Arabian Sea | Estuary | Flows through Rajasthan, MP and Gujarat |
| Sabarmati | Arabian Sea | Estuary | Gujarat |
| Luni | Rann of Kutch | Disappears in marsh | Rajasthan; ends without reaching the sea |
| Godavari | Bay of Bengal | Delta | Rice-growing delta in Andhra Pradesh |
| Krishna | Bay of Bengal | Delta | Joins Godavari delta area |
| Kaveri | Bay of Bengal | Delta | “Garden of South India” |
| Mahanadi | Bay of Bengal | Delta | Odisha; Hirakud Dam |
| Ganga–Brahmaputra | Bay of Bengal | Delta (Sundarbans) | Largest delta in the world |
52. ‘Disguised Unemployment’ is a situation where
(A) people are not willing to work at the going wage rate.
(B) people are employed at the going productivity is zero or negligible.
(C) the unemployment rate is hidden due to lack of proper data.
(D) people are employed only in the informal sector.
Answer: (B) people are employed at the going productivity is zero or negligible.
Explanation:
Disguised unemployment occurs when more workers are engaged in a job than are needed, so the marginal productivity of the extra workers is zero or negligible. Removing them would not reduce total output. It is common in Indian agriculture, where many family members work on a small plot.
Types of Unemployment
| Type | Meaning | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Disguised | Extra workers whose marginal productivity is zero | Surplus family members on a small farm |
| Seasonal | Work available only in certain seasons | Agricultural labourers in the off-season |
| Structural | Mismatch between skills and available jobs | Workers displaced by new technology |
| Frictional | Temporary gap between leaving one job and starting another | Fresh graduates between jobs |
| Cyclical | Caused by the downswing of the business cycle | Layoffs in a recession |
| Open | Able and willing to work but unable to find any job | Jobseekers in cities |
| Educated | Educated persons without suitable jobs | Graduates in low-skilled work |
| Technological | Machines replace human labour | Automation in factories |
53. In what proportion water must be added to spirit to gain 20% by selling it at the cost price?
(A) 2 : 5
(B) 1 : 5
(C) 3 : 5
(D) 4 : 5
Answer: (B) 1 : 5
Explanation:
Taking 5 parts of spirit and adding 1 part of water gives 6 parts of mixture. Selling these 6 parts at the price of spirit brings in the cost of 6 parts, while only 5 parts of spirit were paid for. The gain is 1/5 = 20%. So water and spirit are mixed in the ratio 1 : 5.
54. India crossed what milestone in non-fossil fuel installed electricity generation capacity in July, 2026?
(A) 200 GW
(B) 250 GW
(C) 300 GW
(D) 350 GW
Answer: (C) 300 GW
Explanation:
India’s non-fossil fuel installed electricity capacity reached 300.50 GW as of 31 July 2026, which means it crossed the 300 GW mark. This is more than 60% of the national target of 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030. It accounts for over 54% of India’s total installed power capacity.
India’s Non-Fossil Capacity as of 31 July 2026
| Source | Capacity (GW) |
|---|---|
| Solar | 164.59 |
| Wind | 58.14 |
| Hydro (large and small) | 57.24 |
| Bio-power | 11.75 |
| Nuclear | 8.78 |
| Total non-fossil | 300.50 |
| Total installed capacity (all sources) | About 552 |
| Target | 500 GW by 2030 |
| Record addition in FY 2025–26 | 55.29 GW (44.6 GW solar, 6 GW wind) |
55. Which of the following is the main source of income for the government of India?
(A) Foreign Aid
(B) Printing Currency
(C) Taxes
(D) Sale of Public Sector Undertakings
Answer: (C) Taxes
Explanation:
Taxes, both direct and indirect, are the largest source of revenue for the Government of India. Income tax, corporate tax, GST, customs duty and excise duty together make up most of the government’s receipts. Foreign aid is small, printing currency is not used as a source of revenue, and disinvestment of PSUs is only an occasional capital receipt.
Sources of Government Revenue
| Category | Source | Type |
|---|---|---|
| Tax revenue | Income tax | Direct |
| Tax revenue | Corporate tax | Direct |
| Tax revenue | Goods and Services Tax (GST) | Indirect |
| Tax revenue | Customs duty | Indirect |
| Tax revenue | Union excise duty | Indirect |
| Non-tax revenue | Interest receipts, dividends and profits from PSUs | Revenue receipt |
| Non-tax revenue | Fees, fines, licence charges, spectrum auctions | Revenue receipt |
| Capital receipts | Market borrowings, loans | Debt creating |
| Capital receipts | Disinvestment, recovery of loans | Non-debt creating |
56. Which is the longest river in peninsular India?
(A) Narmada
(B) Krishna
(C) Godavari
(D) Mahanadi
Answer: (C) Godavari
Explanation:
The Godavari, called the “Dakshin Ganga”, is the longest river of peninsular India at about 1,465 km. It rises at Trimbak near Nashik in Maharashtra and flows east into the Bay of Bengal. The Krishna comes second at about 1,400 km.
Major Peninsular Rivers
| River | Length (km, approx.) | Origin | Flows into | Direction |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Godavari | 1,465 | Trimbak, Nashik (Maharashtra) | Bay of Bengal | East |
| Krishna | 1,400 | Mahabaleshwar (Maharashtra) | Bay of Bengal | East |
| Narmada | 1,312 | Amarkantak (Madhya Pradesh) | Arabian Sea | West |
| Mahanadi | 858 | Sihawa, Dhamtari (Chhattisgarh) | Bay of Bengal | East |
| Brahmani | 799 | Formed by Koel and Sankh rivers | Bay of Bengal | East |
| Kaveri | 800 | Talakaveri (Karnataka) | Bay of Bengal | East |
| Tapti | 724 | Multai (Madhya Pradesh) | Arabian Sea | West |
| Pennar | 597 | Nandi Hills (Karnataka) | Bay of Bengal | East |
57. A vendor buys 3 bananas in a rupee and sells 4 in a rupee. Find his profit or loss percentage.
(A) Profit 15%
(B) Profit 25%
(C) Loss 15%
(D) Loss 25%
Answer: (D) Loss 25%
Explanation:
The vendor buys 3 bananas for ₹1, so each banana costs ₹1/3. He sells 4 for ₹1, so each sells for ₹1/4. Loss = 1/3 − 1/4 = 1/12 per banana. Loss % = (1/12) ÷ (1/3) × 100 = 25%.
58. Which pass connects Srinagar with Leh?
(A) Nathu-La
(B) Bum-La
(C) Zoji-La
(D) Shipki-La
Answer: (C) Zoji-La
Explanation:
Zoji La, at about 3,528 m in the Great Himalayan range, connects Srinagar in the Kashmir Valley with Kargil and Leh in Ladakh along National Highway 1. It is usually closed by snow in winter. The Zojila Tunnel under construction is meant to give all-weather connectivity.
Important Mountain Passes of India
| Pass | Location | Connects | Approx. height (m) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Zoji La | J&K / Ladakh | Srinagar – Kargil – Leh | 3,528 |
| Banihal Pass | J&K | Jammu – Srinagar | 2,832 |
| Khardung La | Ladakh | Leh – Nubra Valley | 5,359 |
| Baralacha La | Himachal Pradesh / Ladakh | Manali – Leh | 4,890 |
| Rohtang Pass | Himachal Pradesh | Kullu – Lahaul-Spiti | 3,978 |
| Shipki La | Himachal Pradesh | India – Tibet (Sutlej enters India) | 3,930 |
| Lipulekh Pass | Uttarakhand | India – Tibet (Kailash Mansarovar route) | – |
| Niti Pass | Uttarakhand | India – Tibet | – |
| Nathu La | Sikkim | Gangtok – Lhasa (India–China trade) | 4,310 |
| Jelep La | Sikkim | Sikkim – Tibet | 4,267 |
| Bum La | Arunachal Pradesh | Tawang – Tibet | – |
| Diphu Pass | Arunachal Pradesh | India – Myanmar / China tri-junction area | – |
59. Which of the following is not a basis for the classification of animals?
(A) Segmentation
(B) Levels of organization
(C) Symmetry
(D) Mode of nutrition
Answer: (D) Mode of nutrition
Explanation:
Animals are classified on features such as levels of organisation, symmetry, germ layers, coelom and segmentation. Mode of nutrition is not used to classify animals because all animals are heterotrophic. It is a basis for separating the kingdoms (for example plants from animals and fungi).
Basis of Animal Classification (Major Phyla)
| Phylum | Level of organisation | Symmetry | Germ layers | Coelom | Segmentation |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Porifera | Cellular | Asymmetrical or radial | – (no true layers) | Absent | Absent |
| Cnidaria | Tissue | Radial | Diploblastic | Absent | Absent |
| Ctenophora | Tissue | Radial | Diploblastic | Absent | Absent |
| Platyhelminthes | Organ | Bilateral | Triploblastic | Acoelomate | Absent |
| Aschelminthes | Organ system | Bilateral | Triploblastic | Pseudocoelomate | Absent |
| Annelida | Organ system | Bilateral | Triploblastic | Coelomate | Present (metameric) |
| Arthropoda | Organ system | Bilateral | Triploblastic | Coelomate | Present |
| Mollusca | Organ system | Bilateral | Triploblastic | Coelomate | Absent |
| Echinodermata | Organ system | Radial (adult) | Triploblastic | Coelomate | Absent |
| Hemichordata | Organ system | Bilateral | Triploblastic | Coelomate | Absent |
| Chordata | Organ system | Bilateral | Triploblastic | Coelomate | Present |
60. Which one is the feature of economic globalization?
(A) Foreign Direct Investment
(B) Subsidies to the Industries
(C) Community-led Economic Development
(D) License-based Industrialization
Answer: (A) Foreign Direct Investment
Explanation:
Economic globalisation is the integration of national economies through trade, investment and technology flows. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) by multinational companies is one of its main features. Subsidies to industries, community-led development and licence-based industrialisation (the licence raj) belong to the earlier controlled, inward-looking model that India moved away from in 1991.
Features of Economic Globalisation and India’s 1991 Reforms
| Feature | Meaning | India’s example |
|---|---|---|
| Foreign Direct Investment | Overseas firms invest directly in domestic businesses | FDI limits raised in many sectors since 1991 |
| Trade liberalisation | Lower tariffs and fewer import restrictions | Customs duty reduced |
| Free flow of capital | Easier movement of money across borders | Foreign Portfolio Investment allowed |
| Multinational corporations | Firms operating in many countries | Entry of global companies after 1991 |
| Technology transfer | Spread of technology and know-how | IT and manufacturing sectors |
| Delicensing and privatisation | Less state control over industry | Abolition of industrial licensing for most industries |
| Membership in global bodies | Rule-based trade | India a member of WTO since 1995 |
| Outsourcing and global supply chains | Production split across countries | BPO and IT services |
61. The sum of all even numbers between 21 and 51 is
(A) 518
(B) 540
(C) 560
(D) 596
Answer: (B) 540
Explanation:
The even numbers between 21 and 51 are 22, 24, …, 50. This is an arithmetic progression with first term 22, last term 50 and common difference 2. The number of terms is (50 − 22) ÷ 2 + 1 = 15. The sum is 15 × (22 + 50) ÷ 2 = 15 × 36 = 540.
62. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(A) CO₂
(B) CH₄
(C) N₂
(D) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
Answer: (C) N₂
Explanation:
Greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation and trap heat in the atmosphere. CO₂, CH₄ and CFCs do this. Nitrogen (N₂), which makes up about 78% of air, is a diatomic molecule that does not absorb infrared radiation significantly, so it is not a greenhouse gas.
Greenhouse Gases
| Gas | Formula | Main source | Relative warming potential (100 years, approx.) | Note |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Carbon dioxide | CO₂ | Fossil fuels, deforestation | 1 | Largest contributor to warming |
| Methane | CH₄ | Paddy fields, livestock, landfills | About 28 | Short-lived but potent |
| Nitrous oxide | N₂O | Fertilisers, industry | About 265 | Long-lived |
| Chlorofluorocarbons | CFCs | Refrigerants, aerosols | Thousands | Also deplete ozone; controlled by the Montreal Protocol |
| Hydrofluorocarbons | HFCs | Refrigerants | Hundreds to thousands | Phased down under the Kigali Amendment |
| Water vapour | H₂O | Evaporation | – | Natural greenhouse gas; strong feedback effect |
| Ozone (troposphere) | O₃ | Reactions of pollutants | – | Secondary pollutant |
| Sulphur hexafluoride | SF₆ | Electrical industry | About 23,500 | Very long-lived |
| Nitrogen | N₂ | Natural | None | Not a greenhouse gas |
| Oxygen | O₂ | Natural | None | Not a greenhouse gas |
63. About the Deccan policy of Aurangzeb, Jadunath Sarkar has written, ‘The Sultan … turned Napoleon and the Deccan ulcer ruined Aurangzeb,’ because
(A) Mughal-Maratha wars were prolonged throughout the whole of the South, except Kerala.
(B) the endless wars in the South demoralised the Mughal army and ruined economy in the South completely.
(C) the wars in the South turned into civil wars, the end of which seemed impossible.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation:
Aurangzeb spent the last 26 years of his life (1681–1707) in the Deccan fighting the Marathas, Bijapur and Golconda. The wars dragged on across the south, drained the treasury, wore out the army and left the empire unable to hold its gains. Sarkar compared this to the Spanish campaign that ruined Napoleon, and each of the options (A), (B) and (C) describes part of that damage.
Aurangzeb’s Deccan Policy: Key Events
| Year | Event |
|---|---|
| 1681 | Aurangzeb moves to the Deccan, never to return north |
| 1686 | Conquest of Bijapur (Adil Shahi dynasty ended) |
| 1687 | Conquest of Golconda (Qutb Shahi dynasty ended) |
| 1689 | Sambhaji captured and executed |
| 1689–1707 | Rajaram, then Tarabai, continue Maratha resistance |
| 1698–1707 | Long sieges of forts; Marathas raid Mughal territory widely |
| 1707 | Aurangzeb dies at Ahmednagar |
Consequences
| Area | Effect |
|---|---|
| Treasury | Huge expenditure on a permanent campaign |
| Army | Exhausted and demoralised; discipline weakened |
| Administration | Jagirdari crisis; officers short of jagirs |
| North India | Neglected; rebellions of Jats, Sikhs, Satnamis and Rajputs |
| Marathas | Became a stronger, more widespread power |
| Empire | Began to decline after his death |
64. Who is the present Vice-President of India?
(A) Jagdeep Dhankhar
(B) M. Venkaiah Naidu
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Mohammad Hamid Ansari
Answer: None of the options. The present Vice-President is C. P. Radhakrishnan.
Explanation:
C. P. Radhakrishnan has been serving as the 15th Vice-President of India since September 2025. Jagdeep Dhankhar held the office from 2022 but is no longer in it, so option (A) is out of date. The other three are earlier Vice-Presidents, and P. Chidambaram has never held the post. If the paper’s key gives (A), it was probably prepared before Dhankhar’s exit, so check the official answer key.
Recent Vice-Presidents of India
| Vice-President | Tenure | Note |
|---|---|---|
| Mohammad Hamid Ansari | 2007–2017 | Served two full terms |
| M. Venkaiah Naidu | 2017–2022 | 13th Vice-President |
| Jagdeep Dhankhar | 2022–2025 | 14th Vice-President |
| C. P. Radhakrishnan | 2025–present | 15th Vice-President; former Governor of Maharashtra |
Vice-President: Constitutional Facts
| Item | Detail |
|---|---|
| Article creating the office | Article 63 |
| Election | By an electoral college of members of both Houses of Parliament (Article 66) |
| Term | 5 years |
| Ex-officio role | Chairman of the Rajya Sabha |
| First Vice-President | Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (1952) |
65. The cost of manufacture of a tape recorder is ₹1,500. The manufacturer fixes the marked price 20% above the cost of manufacture and allows a discount of 10%. What is the rate of discount if the marked price is fixed at ₹1,620?
(A) 12%
(B) 8%
(C) 20%
(D) 10%
Answer: (D) 10%
Explanation:
The marked price is 20% above the cost: 1500 × 1.20 = ₹1,800. A 10% discount gives a selling price of 1800 × 0.90 = ₹1,620. So the ₹1,620 in the question is the price at which the item is finally sold, and the discount rate that produces it from the marked price of ₹1,800 is 10%. The last line of the question is worded confusingly, so check the official key if your answer differs.
66. Which of the following optical phenomena is mainly responsible for the formation of rainbow?
(A) Reflection of light only
(B) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection of light
(C) Diffraction of light only
(D) Polarization of light only
Answer: (B) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection of light
Explanation:
A rainbow forms when sunlight enters raindrops. The light is refracted on entering the drop, dispersed into its colours, internally reflected at the back of the drop, and refracted again when it leaves. The observer sees red on the outer edge and violet on the inner edge of the primary bow, at about 42° and 40° from the antisolar point.
Stages in Rainbow Formation
| Stage | Phenomenon | What happens |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Refraction | Sunlight bends on entering the water drop |
| 2 | Dispersion | White light splits into VIBGYOR because each colour bends by a different amount |
| 3 | Internal reflection | Light is reflected from the back of the drop |
| 4 | Refraction | Light bends again as it leaves the drop |
Related Optical Phenomena
| Phenomenon | Cause | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Primary rainbow | One internal reflection | Red outside, violet inside |
| Secondary rainbow | Two internal reflections | Fainter, colours reversed |
| Scattering | Light deflected by small particles | Blue sky, red sunset |
| Total internal reflection | Light cannot leave a denser medium | Mirage, optical fibre, diamond sparkle |
| Atmospheric refraction | Light bends in air of varying density | Twinkling of stars |
67. Which catalyst is used for the synthesis of H₂SO₄ in contact process?
(A) Fe
(B) V₂O₅
(C) Cu
(D) MnO₂
Answer: (B) V₂O₅
Explanation:
In the contact process, SO₂ is oxidised to SO₃ using vanadium pentoxide (V₂O₅) as the catalyst at about 450 °C and 1–2 atm. The SO₃ is absorbed in concentrated H₂SO₄ to give oleum, which is diluted to produce sulphuric acid.
Catalysts in Industrial Processes
| Process | Product | Catalyst | Conditions |
|---|---|---|---|
| Contact process | H₂SO₄ | V₂O₅ | About 450 °C, 1–2 atm |
| Haber process | NH₃ | Finely divided iron (Fe) with Mo as promoter | 450–500 °C, about 200 atm |
| Ostwald process | HNO₃ | Platinum–rhodium gauze | About 800 °C |
| Lead chamber process | H₂SO₄ | Oxides of nitrogen | Older method |
| Hydrogenation of oils | Vanaspati ghee | Nickel (Ni) | About 473 K |
| Deacon’s process | Cl₂ | CuCl₂ | About 400 °C |
| Bosch process | H₂ | Fe₂O₃ with Cr₂O₃ | Water gas shift |
| Fischer–Tropsch | Hydrocarbons | Fe or Co | Syngas to fuel |
68. Who served as President of the 80th Session of the UN General Assembly?
(A) Annalena Baerbock
(B) Ursula von der Leyen
(C) Mia Mottley
(D) Amina J. Mohammed
Answer: (A) Annalena Baerbock
Explanation:
Annalena Baerbock of Germany, a former German Foreign Minister, was elected President of the 80th Session of the UN General Assembly in June 2025. The session opened in September 2025 at UN Headquarters, New York.
Recent Presidents of the UN General Assembly
| Session | Year (opening) | President | Country |
|---|---|---|---|
| 76th | 2021 | Abdulla Shahid | Maldives |
| 77th | 2022 | Csaba Kőrösi | Hungary |
| 78th | 2023 | Dennis Francis | Trinidad and Tobago |
| 79th | 2024 | Philemon Yang | Cameroon |
| 80th | 2025 | Annalena Baerbock | Germany |
69. The simplification of 1/8 + 1/82 + 1/83+ 1/84+ 1/85 to three places of decimal yields
(A) 0.143
(B) 0.163
(C) 0.215
(D) 0.715
Answer: (A) 0.143
Explanation: The terms are 1/8, 1/8², 1/8³, 1/8⁴ and 1/8⁵, which form a geometric series with first term 1/8 and common ratio 1/8. The sum is (1/8) × (1 − (1/8)⁵) ÷ (1 − 1/8) = (1/7) × (1 − 1/32768) = 4681/32768 ≈ 0.142853. To three decimal places this is 0.143.
70. The displacement-time graph of a particle is parallel to the time axis, then
(A) the particle is moving with increasing velocity.
(B) the particle is at rest.
(C) the particle is moving with uniform acceleration.
(D) the particle is moving with increasing acceleration.
Answer: (B) the particle is at rest.
Explanation:
In a displacement-time graph, the slope gives velocity. A line parallel to the time axis has zero slope, so the displacement does not change with time and the velocity is zero. The particle is at rest.
Reading Displacement-Time Graphs
| Shape of graph | Slope (velocity) | Motion |
|---|---|---|
| Straight line parallel to time axis | Zero | At rest |
| Straight line, inclined upward | Constant, positive | Uniform velocity (zero acceleration) |
| Straight line, inclined downward | Constant, negative | Uniform velocity in the opposite direction |
| Curve bending upward (concave up) | Increasing | Uniform or increasing acceleration |
| Curve bending downward (concave down) | Decreasing | Retardation (slowing down) |
| Line parallel to displacement axis | Infinite | Not possible for a real particle |
71. If a + b + c = 0, then find the value of (a²/bc + b²/ca + c²/ab).
(A) -1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 3
Answer: (D) 3
Explanation:
Combine the three fractions over the common denominator abc: a²/bc + b²/ca + c²/ab = (a³ + b³ + c³) ÷ abc. When a + b + c = 0, the identity a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc holds. So the expression equals 3abc ÷ abc = 3.
72. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by the central bank generally results in
(A) an increase in the money supply.
(B) a decrease in the money supply.
(C) no change in the money supply.
(D) an increase in the fiscal deficit.
Answer: (B) a decrease in the money supply.
Explanation:
CRR is the share of a bank’s deposits that it must keep with the central bank in cash. When the central bank raises CRR, banks have less money left to lend, so credit creation falls and the money supply decreases. A lower CRR has the opposite effect.
Monetary Policy Tools of the RBI
| Tool | Meaning | Effect when raised | Effect when lowered |
|---|---|---|---|
| Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) | Share of deposits banks keep with the RBI in cash | Money supply falls | Money supply rises |
| Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) | Share of deposits banks keep in liquid assets (gold, securities, cash) | Less lending capacity | More lending capacity |
| Repo rate | Rate at which the RBI lends short-term to banks | Credit becomes costlier; demand falls | Credit becomes cheaper |
| Reverse repo rate | Rate at which the RBI borrows from banks | Banks park more funds with the RBI | Less attractive to park funds |
| Bank rate | Long-term lending rate of the RBI | Borrowing costlier | Borrowing cheaper |
| Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) | Emergency overnight borrowing by banks | Higher cost of emergency funds | Lower cost |
| Open Market Operations (OMO) | Buying or selling government securities | Selling securities drains liquidity | Buying securities adds liquidity |
73. The velocity of P-waves is
(A) 5 to 8 km/second.
(B) 3 to 5 km/second.
(C) 1 to 2 km/second.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) 5 to 8 km/second.
Explanation: P-waves (primary or compressional waves) are the fastest seismic waves and the first to reach a seismograph. In the crust they travel at roughly 5 to 8 km/s, and their speed increases with depth in the mantle. They pass through solids, liquids and gases.
Seismic Waves
| Wave | Type | Typical velocity (crust) | Medium | Motion of particles | Arrival |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| P-wave (primary) | Body wave, longitudinal | About 5–8 km/s | Solid, liquid, gas | Parallel to wave direction | First |
| S-wave (secondary) | Body wave, transverse | About 3–4.5 km/s | Solids only | Perpendicular to wave direction | Second |
| Love wave | Surface wave | Slower than S-waves | Surface | Horizontal shear | After body waves |
| Rayleigh wave | Surface wave | Slower than Love waves | Surface | Rolling, elliptical | Last; most damage |
74. A can do 1/2 of a piece of work in 5 days, B can do 3/5 of the same work in 9 days and C can do 2/3 of that work in 8 days. In how many days can three of them together do the work?
(A) 3 days
(B) 5 days
(C) 4½ days
(D) 4 days
75. Equal sums of money are lent to X and Y at 7.5% p.a. for one year and 5 years respectively. If the difference in the interest paid by them was ₹150, the sum lent to each was
(A) ₹500
(B) ₹1,000
(C) ₹2,000
(D) ₹3,000
Answer: (A) ₹500
Explanation: Taking simple interest, let the sum be P. Interest for 1 year is 7.5% of P and for 5 years is 37.5% of P. The difference is (37.5% − 7.5%) of P = 30% of P = 0.30P. Setting 0.30P = 150 gives P = ₹500.
76. Which smallest number must be added to 2203 so that we get a perfect square?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: (C) 6
Explanation: The square of 46 is 2116, which is below 2203, and the square of 47 is 2209, which is above it. The next perfect square after 2203 is 2209, so the smallest number to add is 2209 − 2203 = 6.
77. India is a member of which of the following organizations?
(A) NATO
(B) Mercosur
(C) Quad
(D) OPEC
Answer: (C) Quad
Explanation: India is a member of the Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) along with the United States, Japan and Australia. India is not a member of NATO (a North Atlantic military alliance), Mercosur (a South American trade bloc) or OPEC (an oil-exporting group).
Organisations and India’s Status
| Organisation | Focus | Members / Region | India a member? |
|---|---|---|---|
| Quad | Indo-Pacific cooperation | India, USA, Japan, Australia | Yes |
| NATO | Military alliance | North America and Europe | No |
| Mercosur | Trade bloc | Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay and others | No (India has a preferential trade agreement with it) |
| OPEC | Oil producers’ group | Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Iran, UAE and others | No |
| BRICS | Emerging economies | Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa and others | Yes |
| SCO | Security and economic cooperation | Eurasian states | Yes (since 2017) |
| G20 | Major economies | 19 countries plus the EU and the African Union | Yes |
| SAARC | South Asian cooperation | Eight South Asian countries | Yes |
| BIMSTEC | Bay of Bengal cooperation | Seven countries | Yes |
| Commonwealth of Nations | Former British territories | Many countries | Yes |
| WTO | Global trade rules | Most countries | Yes (since 1995) |
| ASEAN | Southeast Asian bloc | Ten Southeast Asian countries | No (dialogue partner) |
78. The time duration of 1 hour 45 minutes is what percent of a day?
(A) 7.218%
(B) 7.292%
(C) 8.3%
(D) 8.24%
Answer: (B) 7.292%
Explanation: 1 hour 45 minutes is 105 minutes. A day has 24 × 60 = 1440 minutes. The required percentage is 105 ÷ 1440 × 100 = 7.2917%, which is 7.292% to three decimal places.
79. A triple bond is present in which of the following molecules?
(A) H₂
(B) N₂
(C) O₂
(D) Br₂
Answer: (B) N₂
Explanation:
Each nitrogen atom has 5 valence electrons and needs 3 more to complete its octet. Two nitrogen atoms share three pairs of electrons, forming a triple bond (N≡N). This bond is very strong, which makes nitrogen gas unreactive.
Bonds in Common Molecules
| Molecule | Bond type | Bond order | Bond energy (kJ/mol, approx.) |
|---|---|---|---|
| N₂ | Triple (N≡N) | 3 | 945 |
| H₂ | Single (H–H) | 1 | 436 |
| O₂ | Double (O=O) | 2 | 498 |
| Br₂ | Single (Br–Br) | 1 | 193 |
| Cl₂ | Single (Cl–Cl) | 1 | 242 |
| F₂ | Single (F–F) | 1 | 158 |
| CO₂ | Two double bonds (O=C=O) | 2 | – |
| CO | Triple (C≡O) | 3 | 1072 |
| C₂H₂ (acetylene) | Triple (C≡C) | 3 | About 837 |
| HCN | Triple (C≡N) | 3 | – |
80. Loktak lake is located in
(A) Assam
(B) Manipur
(C) Mizoram
(D) Tripura
Answer: (B) Manipur
Explanation:
Loktak Lake, in the Bishnupur district of Manipur, is the largest freshwater lake in North-East India. It is known for its floating islands of vegetation called phumdis. Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating national park in the world, lies on it and is the home of the endangered sangai (brow-antlered deer). Loktak is a Ramsar site.
Important Lakes of India
| Lake | State / UT | Type | Note |
|---|---|---|---|
| Loktak | Manipur | Freshwater | Phumdis; Keibul Lamjao NP; sangai |
| Wular | Jammu and Kashmir | Freshwater | One of the largest freshwater lakes in India |
| Dal | Jammu and Kashmir | Freshwater | Srinagar; shikaras and houseboats |
| Pangong Tso | Ladakh | Saline | Shared with Tibet (China) |
| Tso Moriri | Ladakh | Brackish | High-altitude Ramsar site |
| Chilika | Odisha | Brackish lagoon | Largest coastal lagoon in India |
| Pulicat | Andhra Pradesh / Tamil Nadu | Brackish lagoon | Second largest lagoon in India |
| Kolleru | Andhra Pradesh | Freshwater | Between the Godavari and Krishna deltas |
| Sambhar | Rajasthan | Salt lake | Largest inland salt lake in India |
| Pushkar | Rajasthan | Freshwater | Pilgrim site |
| Lonar | Maharashtra | Saline crater lake | Formed by a meteorite impact |
| Vembanad | Kerala | Backwater | Longest lake in India; Kumarakom |
| Nalsarovar | Gujarat | Freshwater | Bird sanctuary |
| Deepor Beel | Assam | Freshwater wetland | Ramsar site near Guwahati |
| Umiam (Barapani) | Meghalaya | Reservoir | Near Shillong |
| Rudrasagar | Tripura | Freshwater | Ramsar site |
| Tsomgo (Changu) | Sikkim | Glacial | High altitude |
| Hussain Sagar | Telangana | Artificial | Hyderabad |
81. What is the capital of Ukraine?
(A) Muscat
(B) Warsaw
(C) Kyiv
(D) Abu Dhabi
Answer: (C) Kyiv
Explanation: Kyiv is the capital and largest city of Ukraine. It lies on the Dnieper River in the north-central part of the country. Muscat is the capital of Oman, Warsaw of Poland and Abu Dhabi of the UAE.
Ukraine and Its Neighbours
| Country | Capital |
|---|---|
| Ukraine | Kyiv |
| Poland | Warsaw |
| Belarus | Minsk |
| Russia | Moscow |
| Moldova | Chisinau |
| Romania | Bucharest |
| Hungary | Budapest |
| Slovakia | Bratislava |
| Oman | Muscat |
| United Arab Emirates | Abu Dhabi |
82. The ratio of the number of boys to that of girls in a school having 540 students is 13 : 11. What will be the new ratio if 3 more girls are admitted?
(A) 7 : 6
(B) 6 : 7
(C) 10 : 11
(D) 13 : 14
Answer: (A) 7 : 6
Explanation:
For 540 students in the ratio 13 : 11, the boys number 292.5 and the girls 247.5, which are not whole numbers. So the question has a data error. Using these values anyway, adding 3 girls gives 250.5 girls, and the ratio is 292.5 : 250.5 = 195 : 167, about 1.168. This is closest to 7 : 6.
83. The value of 1/20 + 1/30 + 1/42 + 1/56 + 1/72 + 1/90 is
(A) 1/10
(B) 3/5
(C) 3/20
(D) 7/20
Answer: (C) 3/20
Explanation: Each denominator is a product of consecutive integers: 20 = 4×5, 30 = 5×6, 42 = 6×7, 56 = 7×8, 72 = 8×9, 90 = 9×10. Using 1/(n(n+1)) = 1/n − 1/(n+1), the terms cancel in pairs, leaving 1/4 − 1/10 = 5/20 − 2/20 = 3/20.
84. Who is the Director General of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2026?
(A) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
(B) Margaret Chan
(C) Gro Harlem Brundtland
(D) Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
Answer: (A) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
Explanation:
Dr Tedros began his second term as WHO Director-General on 16 August 2022, and the term ends on 15 August 2027. Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala heads the World Trade Organization, not WHO, while Margaret Chan and Gro Harlem Brundtland are former WHO Directors-General. who
WHO Directors-General
| Director-General | Country | Tenure |
|---|---|---|
| Brock Chisholm | Canada | 1948–1953 |
| Marcolino Candau | Brazil | 1953–1973 |
| Halfdan Mahler | Denmark | 1973–1988 |
| Hiroshi Nakajima | Japan | 1988–1998 |
| Gro Harlem Brundtland | Norway | 1998–2003 |
| Lee Jong-wook | South Korea | 2003–2006 |
| Margaret Chan | China | 2006–2017 |
| Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus | Ethiopia | 2017–present (term ends August 2027) |
85. Which country holds the G7 Presidency in 2026?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Italy
(D) Canada
Answer: (B) France
Explanation:
France has held the G7 presidency since 1 January 2026. It hosted the 52nd G7 summit in Évian-les-Bains from 15 to 17 June 2026. The presidency rotates annually among the seven members, and Canada held it in 2025.
Recent G7 Presidencies
| Year | Host country | Summit venue |
|---|---|---|
| 2019 | France | Biarritz |
| 2020 | United States | Summit cancelled (COVID-19) |
| 2021 | United Kingdom | Carbis Bay |
| 2022 | Germany | Schloss Elmau |
| 2023 | Japan | Hiroshima |
| 2024 | Italy | Apulia |
| 2025 | Canada | Kananaskis |
| 2026 | France | Évian-les-Bains |
G7 Members: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, United Kingdom and United States. The European Union takes part as a guest.
86. If a liquid does not wet glass, the angle of contact is
(A) Zero angle
(B) Acute angle
(C) Obtuse angle
(D) Right angle
Answer: (C) Obtuse angle
Explanation:
The angle of contact is measured inside the liquid between the liquid surface and the solid surface. A liquid that wets glass has an acute angle and rises in a capillary tube. A liquid that does not wet glass, like mercury, has an obtuse angle (about 140°), so its meniscus is convex and it is depressed in a capillary tube.
Angle of Contact and Wetting
| Liquid–solid pair | Angle of contact | Behaviour | Meniscus | Level in capillary |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Water – clean glass | Acute (near 0°) | Wets | Concave | Rises |
| Alcohol – glass | About 0° | Wets completely | Concave | Rises |
| Mercury – glass | About 140° (obtuse) | Does not wet | Convex | Falls |
| Water – waxy or oily surface | Obtuse | Does not wet | Convex | Falls |
| Water – lotus leaf | Above 150° | Highly non-wetting | – | – |
| Boundary case | 90° | Neither wets nor repels | Flat | No change |
87. Which Indian athlete is aiming for a hat-trick of Asian Games gold medals in men’s 10,000m?
(A) Avinash Sable
(B) Rohit Yadav
(C) Neeraj Chopra
(D) Tajinder Pal Singh Toor
Explanation:
Among the options, Toor is the athlete who was aiming for a hat-trick of Asian Games gold medals. He won gold in 2018 and 2022 in the men’s shot put, not the 10,000 m, so the event in the question appears to be a mistake. At the 2026 Nagoya Games he settled for silver with a throw of 20.64 m, behind Iran’s Mohammadreza Tayebise, so the hat-trick bid fell short.
Tajinderpal Singh Toor at the Asian Games
| Edition | Venue | Event | Result | Best throw |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2018 | Jakarta | Men’s shot put | Gold | 20.75 m (Games record at the time) |
| 2022 (held in 2023) | Hangzhou | Men’s shot put | Gold | 20.36 m |
| 2026 | Aichi-Nagoya | Men’s shot put | Silver | 20.64 m |
The Other Athletes
| Athlete | Event |
|---|---|
| Avinash Sable | Steeplechase (3000 m) |
| Neeraj Chopra | Javelin throw |
| Rohit Yadav | Javelin throw |
88. Before the foundation of Calcutta, the biggest English Settlement in Bengal was at
(A) Qasim Bazar
(B) Chittagong
(C) Hugli
(D) Murshidabad
Answer: (C) Hugli
Explanation:
Before Calcutta was founded in 1690 by Job Charnock, the principal English settlement and factory in Bengal was at Hugli (Hooghly), established in the 1650s. After Mughal clashes in 1686, Charnock left Hugli and moved to the site that became Calcutta.
English Settlements in Eastern India
| Place | Approx. year | Note |
|---|---|---|
| Balasore (Orissa) | 1633 | First English factory in eastern India |
| Hugli | 1651 | Main English settlement in Bengal before Calcutta |
| Qasim Bazar | 1650s | Silk-trade factory near Murshidabad |
| Patna | 1620s | Saltpetre trade |
| Sutanuti (Calcutta) | 1690 | Job Charnock settled here |
| Fort William | 1696–1702 | Fort built; became the Presidency headquarters |
| Calcutta, Sutanuti and Govindapur | 1698 | Zamindari rights acquired from local landholders |
| Farrukhsiyar’s farman | 1717 | Duty-free trade rights in Bengal |
89. What was the theme of National Science Day, 2026?
(A) Science for Sustainable Development
(B) Women in Science: Catalyzing Civil Society in Bharat
(C) Science for New India
(D) Science and Innovation for all
Answer: (B) Women in Science: Catalyzing Civil Society in Bharat (closest to the official theme)
Explanation: The theme of National Science Day on 28 February 2026 was “Women in Science: Catalysing Viksit Bharat”. Option (B) differs in wording, with “Civil Society in Bharat” in place of “Viksit Bharat”, but it is the only option about women in science, so it is the intended answer. Check the key if your paper prints the theme differently.
National Science Day Themes
| Year | Theme |
|---|---|
| 2020 | Women in Science |
| 2022 | Integrated Approach in Science and Technology for Sustainable Future |
| 2023 | Global Science for Global Wellbeing |
| 2024 | Indigenous Technologies for Viksit Bharat |
| 2025 | Empowering Indian Youth for Global Leadership in Science and Innovation for Viksit Bharat |
| 2026 | Women in Science: Catalysing Viksit Bharat |
National Science Day is observed on 28 February to mark C. V. Raman’s discovery of the Raman Effect in 1928. It has been celebrated since 1987.
90. If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer is 80% of B. What percentage of A is B?
(A) 30%
(B) 40%
(C) 70%
(D) 75%
Answer: (D) 75%
Explanation: The condition is 30% of A + 40% of B = 80% of B. So 30% of A = 40% of B, which means 0.3A = 0.4B. Then B = 0.3A ÷ 0.4 = 0.75A, so B is 75% of A.
Working Details
91. Which of the following is an example of a ‘Merit Good’?
(A) Cigarettes
(B) Education
(C) Luxury Cars
(D) Fast Food
Answer: (B) Education
Explanation:
A merit good is one the government considers to be socially desirable, so it encourages its consumption through subsidies or direct provision, since people tend to under-consume it. Education gives wider benefits to society, such as a skilled workforce and higher productivity. Cigarettes are demerit goods, and luxury cars and fast food are ordinary private goods.
Types of Goods
| Type | Meaning | Examples | Role of government |
|---|---|---|---|
| Merit good | Beneficial; under-consumed if left to the market | Education, vaccination, healthcare, school meals | Subsidy or free provision |
| Demerit good | Harmful; over-consumed | Cigarettes, alcohol, tobacco, gutkha | Taxes, bans, warnings |
| Public good | Non-rival and non-excludable | National defence, street lights, lighthouses | Provided by the state |
| Private good | Rival and excludable | Fast food, clothes, luxury cars | Left to the market |
| Common resource | Rival but non-excludable | Fisheries, forests, groundwater | Regulation |
| Club good | Non-rival but excludable | Cable TV, toll roads, private parks | Market or club provision |
92. The Tehri Dam is built on the
(A) Bhagirathi river
(B) Alaknanda river
(C) Yamuna river
(D) Son river
Answer: (A) Bhagirathi river
Explanation: The Tehri Dam is built on the Bhagirathi river near its confluence with the Bhilangana at Tehri in Uttarakhand. At about 260 m it is the tallest dam in India. It is a rock and earth-fill dam used for hydropower, irrigation and drinking water supply. The Bhagirathi and Alaknanda join at Devprayag to form the Ganga.
Major Dams of India
| Dam | River | State | Note |
|---|---|---|---|
| Tehri | Bhagirathi | Uttarakhand | Tallest dam in India |
| Bhakra Nangal | Sutlej | Himachal Pradesh / Punjab | Gobind Sagar reservoir |
| Hirakud | Mahanadi | Odisha | Among the longest earthen dams in the world |
| Sardar Sarovar | Narmada | Gujarat | Large gravity dam |
| Indira Sagar | Narmada | Madhya Pradesh | Large reservoir |
| Nagarjuna Sagar | Krishna | Telangana / Andhra Pradesh | Masonry dam |
| Srisailam | Krishna | Andhra Pradesh / Telangana | Hydropower |
| Tungabhadra | Tungabhadra | Karnataka | Irrigation |
| Mettur | Kaveri | Tamil Nadu | Stanley Reservoir |
| Idukki | Periyar | Kerala | Arch dam |
| Koyna | Koyna | Maharashtra | Hydropower |
| Bansagar | Son | Madhya Pradesh | Multi-purpose project on the Son |
| Rihand (Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar) | Rihand | Uttar Pradesh | Tributary of the Son |
| Maithon and Panchet | Barakar and Damodar | Jharkhand | Damodar Valley Corporation |
93. ‘Red Data Book’ gives an account of
(A) extinct animals only.
(B) plant fossils.
(C) endangered plants only.
(D) endangered plants, animals and fungi.
Answer: (D) endangered plants, animals and fungi.
Explanation: The Red Data Book (Red List) is maintained by the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature). It records the conservation status of species, covering plants, animals and fungi that are threatened or endangered. It also carries information on extinct species and is a guide for conservation planning.
IUCN Red List Categories
| Category | Abbreviation | Meaning | Example |
|---|---|---|---|
| Extinct | EX | No living individual remains | Dodo, Passenger pigeon |
| Extinct in the Wild | EW | Survives only in captivity | – |
| Critically Endangered | CR | Extremely high risk of extinction | Great Indian Bustard, Gharial |
| Endangered | EN | Very high risk of extinction | Bengal Tiger, Red Panda |
| Vulnerable | VU | High risk of extinction | Asiatic Lion (listed as EN in recent assessments), Sloth bear |
| Near Threatened | NT | Likely to become threatened soon | – |
| Least Concern | LC | Widespread and abundant | House sparrow |
| Data Deficient | DD | Not enough data to assess | – |
| Not Evaluated | NE | Not yet assessed | – |
The IUCN was founded in 1948 and the Red Data Book was begun in 1964. India’s own counterpart is the Zoological Survey of India’s Red Data Book for animals and the Botanical Survey of India’s for plants.
94. Which state of India shares the longest boundary West Bengal?
(A) Bihar
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Odisha
(D) Assam
Answer: (B) Jharkhand
Explanation: West Bengal’s international borders are with Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan, and the longest is with Bangladesh, about 2,217 km. None of the four options is a country, so the question evidently asks which neighbouring Indian state shares the longest border with West Bengal. Jharkhand is the neighbouring state with the longest shared border with West Bengal.
Neighbours of West Bengal
| Neighbour | Type | Direction from West Bengal |
|---|---|---|
| Bangladesh | International (longest, about 2,217 km) | East and south-east |
| Nepal | International | North-west |
| Bhutan | International | North |
| Jharkhand | Indian state | West |
| Bihar | Indian state | North-west |
| Odisha | Indian state | South-west |
| Assam | Indian state | North-east |
| Sikkim | Indian state | North |
95. Radha spends 40% of her salary on food, 20% on house rent, 10% on entertainment and 10% on conveyance. If her savings at the end of a month is ₹1,500, then her salary per month (in ₹) is:
(A) 8,000
(B) 7,500
(C) 6,000
(D) 10,000
The correct answer is (B) 7,500
96. The wrath of the indigo agitations of the nineteenth century was mainly directed against the oppression of the peasantry by
(A) the Government
(B) the Foreign Planters
(C) the Zamindars
(D) the Money Lenders
Answer: (B) the Foreign Planters
Explanation:
The Indigo Revolt (Nil Vidroh) of 1859–60 in Bengal was directed against European indigo planters. They forced peasants to grow indigo on their best land under the tinkathia system, paid very low prices and used violence and false cases against those who refused. Dinabandhu Mitra’s play Nil Darpan (1860) exposed these abuses.
Indigo Revolt: Key Facts
| Item | Details |
|---|---|
| Year | 1859–60 |
| Region | Bengal (Nadia district, Barasat and Jessore) |
| Leaders | Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas (Nadia) |
| Cause | Forced cultivation under planters’ contracts, very low prices |
| Supporters | Harish Chandra Mukherjee (Hindoo Patriot), Dinabandhu Mitra (Nil Darpan), missionaries |
| Government response | Indigo Commission (1860) |
| Outcome | Planters’ abuses curbed; many abandoned indigo in Bengal |
Related Peasant Movements
| Movement | Year | Region | Direction of protest |
|---|---|---|---|
| Champaran Satyagraha | 1917 | Bihar | Indigo planters (tinkathia system) |
| Pabna Agrarian League | 1873–76 | East Bengal | Zamindars |
| Deccan Riots | 1875 | Maharashtra | Moneylenders |
| Kuka Movement | 1860s–70s | Punjab | British rule |
| Bardoli Satyagraha | 1928 | Gujarat | Land revenue increase |
97. Two men are standing at opposite ends of a bridge 1200 metres long. If they walk towards each other at the rate of 5 m/minute and 10 m/minute respectively, in how many minutes will they meet each other?
(A) 60 minutes
(B) 80 minutes
(C) 85 minutes
(D) 90 minutes
Explanation: The two men walk towards each other, so their speeds add: 5 + 10 = 15 m/min. They start 1200 m apart, so they meet after 1200 ÷ 15 = 80 minutes.
98. The primary chemical compound present in LPG is
(A) Buten
(B) Acetylene
(C) Ethylene
(D) Ethanol
Answer: (A) Buten (butane)
Explanation: LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) is mainly a mixture of butane (C₄H₁₀) and propane (C₃H₈), with butane as the main component in the cylinders used in Indian homes. “Buten” in the option appears to be a misspelling of butane. Butene is an alkene and not the main constituent. Acetylene, ethylene and ethanol are not constituents of LPG. A small amount of ethyl mercaptan is added so that leaks can be detected by smell.
Composition and Uses of Common Fuel Gases
| Fuel | Main constituents | Typical use |
|---|---|---|
| LPG | Butane and propane (with a trace of ethyl mercaptan) | Cooking, heating |
| CNG | Methane (CH₄) | Vehicles, piped gas |
| Natural gas | Methane, some ethane | Power, fertiliser |
| Biogas | Methane and CO₂ | Rural cooking and lighting |
| Acetylene | C₂H₂ | Welding and cutting |
| Water gas | CO and H₂ | Industrial fuel |
| Producer gas | CO and N₂ | Industrial fuel |
99. Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) was adopted by
(A) African Union
(B) United Nations
(C) SAARC
(D) European Union
Answer: (B) United Nations
Explanation: CEDAW was adopted by the UN General Assembly on 18 December 1979 and came into force on 3 September 1981. It is often called the international bill of rights for women. India signed it in 1980 and ratified it in 1993. Its implementation is monitored by the CEDAW Committee.
Key International Human Rights Instruments
| Instrument | Adopted | Adopting body |
|---|---|---|
| Universal Declaration of Human Rights | 1948 | UN General Assembly |
| International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) | 1966 | UN General Assembly |
| International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) | 1966 | UN General Assembly |
| CEDAW | 1979 | UN General Assembly |
| Convention against Torture | 1984 | UN General Assembly |
| Convention on the Rights of the Child | 1989 | UN General Assembly |
| Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities | 2006 | UN General Assembly |
100. A man borrowed some money from a private organisation at 5% simple interest per annum. He lent 50% of this money to another person at 10% compound interest per annum and thereby made a profit of ₹3,205 in 4 years. The man borrowed
(A) ₹80,000
(B) ₹1,00,000
(C) ₹1,20,000
(D) ₹1,50,000
Answer: (B) ₹1,00,000
Explanation:
Let the borrowed sum be P. He pays simple interest of 5% a year for 4 years, which is 0.20P. He lends P/2 at 10% compound interest for 4 years. The compound interest earned is (P/2) × (1.1⁴ − 1) = (P/2) × 0.4641 = 0.23205P. His profit is 0.23205P − 0.20P = 0.03205P. Setting this equal to ₹3,205 gives P = ₹1,00,000.
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