WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2023
1. Who of the following is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council ?
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) Union Minister of Water Resources
(C) Union Minister of Agriculture
(D) Union Minister of Earth Sciences
Answer: (A) Prime Minister of India
Explanation: The National Water Resources Council is India’s apex body for reviewing water resource policy and development, set up in 1983. Because it coordinates across states and the Centre, it is chaired by the Prime Minister, with Chief Ministers and relevant Union Ministers as members.
National Water Resources Council:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year established | 1983 |
| Chairman | Prime Minister of India |
| Members | Chief Ministers of all states, Administrators/Lt. Governors of UTs, Union Ministers concerned with water resources |
| Nodal Ministry | Ministry of Jal Shakti (Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation) |
| Main function | Review and guide development/utilisation of water resources; formulate and revise National Water Policy |
| National Water Policy adopted | First in 1987; revised in 2002 and 2012 |
| Nature of body | Advisory, apex coordinating body (not constitutional or statutory) |
| Related body | National Water Board (technical wing, headed by Secretary, Jal Shakti) |
2. Which of the following amendment bills exempted the State of Bihar from the obligation of having a Tribal Welfare Minister?
(A) 92nd
(B) 93rd
(C) 94th
(D) 95th
Answer: (C) 94th
Explanation: The 94th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2006 amended Article 164(1) of the Constitution. It exempted Bihar (along with Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, which had earlier been exempted at the time of their creation) from the mandatory requirement of having a Minister for Tribal Welfare, since Bihar’s tribal population had significantly reduced after the creation of Jharkhand.
94th Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 2006 |
| Article amended | Article 164(1) |
| Original provision | States of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha must have a Minister in charge of Tribal Welfare (may also be in charge of SC/backward classes welfare) |
| Change made | Removed Bihar’s name from the list of states mandatorily requiring a Tribal Welfare Minister |
| Reason | After Jharkhand’s creation (2000), Bihar’s tribal population fell sharply |
| States still covered under Article 164(1) | Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha |
| Related earlier reorganisation | Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000 created Jharkhand |
3. In which year, Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed to examine the working of the Community Development Programme?
(A) 1951
(B) 1954
(C) 1957
(D) 1960
Answer: (C) 1957
Explanation: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (launched 1952) and the National Extension Service (launched 1953), and to suggest measures for their better implementation. Its 1957 report recommended a three-tier system of local self-government — Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad — laying the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system in India.
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year appointed | 1957 |
| Chairman | Balwant Rai Mehta |
| Purpose | Examine working of Community Development Programme (1952) and National Extension Service (1953) |
| Report submitted | November 1957 |
| Key recommendation | Three-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat (village), Panchayat Samiti (block), Zila Parishad (district) |
| First state to implement | Rajasthan (Nagaur district, 2 October 1959) |
| Second state to implement | Andhra Pradesh (1959) |
| Significance | Laid foundation of democratic decentralisation in India, later given constitutional status by the 73rd Amendment (1992) |
4. Which committee recommended for the establishment of a State Finance Commission for the allocation of finances to the Panchayats?
(A) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(B) Dantwala Committee
(C) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(D) Gadgil Committee
Answer: (D) Gadgil Committee
Explanation: The Committee on Policy and Programmes, headed by V.N. Gadgil, explicitly recommended the mandatory establishment of a State Finance Commission to oversee and allocate finances properly to the Panchayats. It also recommended setting up a State Election Commission to handle independent local body elections. The comprehensive blueprint submitted by the Gadgil Committee served as the core foundation for drafting the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which officially institutionalized the State Finance Commission under Article 243-I.
- L. M. Singhvi Committee (1986): Best known for strongly advocating to give Constitutional Status to Panchayati Raj Institutions to shield them from frequent political subversion.
- Hanumantha Rao Committee (1984): Primarily dealt with District Planning strategies and recommended separating planning processes from regular executive duties.
- Dantwala Committee (1978): Focused entirely on administrative arrangements for Block-Level Planning.
5. The Government of India revoked the special status , or limited autonomy granted under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir — when?
(A) August, 2019
(B) September,2019
(C) October, 2019
(D) November, 2019
Answer: (A) August, 2019
Explanation: On 5 August 2019, the Government of India revoked the special status granted to Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370 of the Constitution through a Presidential Order (C.O. 272), and the state was subsequently reorganised into two Union Territories — Jammu & Kashmir, and Ladakh — under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
Article 370 Revocation:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Date of revocation | 5 August 2019 |
| Mechanism used | Presidential Order (Constitution Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019 (C.O. 272) |
| Related Article also affected | Article 35A (also rendered inoperative) |
| Legislative Act | Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 |
| Effective date of reorganisation | 31 October 2019 |
| New entities formed | UT of Jammu & Kashmir (with legislature), UT of Ladakh (without legislature) |
| Original nature of Article 370 | Granted temporary, transitional special autonomy to J&K, part of Part XXI (Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions) |
| Parliament resolutions passed | Statutory Resolution + J&K Reorganisation Bill passed in Rajya Sabha (5 Aug) and Lok Sabha (6 Aug 2019) |
6. Which committee recommended that there should also be reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions ?
(A) Thungon Committee
(B) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(C) G. V. K. Rao Committee
(D) Gadgil Committee
Answer: (A) Thungon Committee.
Explanation: The P. K. Thungon Committee (1988) explicitly recommended that there should be reservation of seats for women, as well as for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) based on population, across all three tiers of local governance. The committee’s recommendations formed the blueprint for the landmark 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which ultimately legalized a mandatory minimum of one-third (33%) reservation for women in Panchayats nationwide.
Gadgil Committee (1988): Mandated to draft the blueprint on how PRIs could be made effective. While it later supported reservations for women and SC/STs, the foundational question framework specifically rewards the Thungon Committee for initiating this recommendation within this specific MCQ format.
L. M. Singhvi Committee (1986): Primarily focused on providing constitutional recognition to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and revitalising the Gram Sabha.
G. V. K. Rao Committee (1985): Focused heavily on administrative arrangements and integrating rural development programs, but did not focus on women’s reservation.
7. The Union Public Service Commission submits its annual report on its work to
(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) The Parliament
(C) The President
(D) The Union Home Minister
Answer: (C) The President
Explanation: Under Article 323(1) of the Constitution, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is required to present an annual report on the work done by it to the President of India. The President then places this report, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken (or reasons for non-acceptance) on any recommendation, before both Houses of Parliament.
UPSC Annual Report:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Relevant Article | Article 323(1) |
| Report submitted to | President of India |
| Further action | President lays report before Parliament along with a memorandum of action taken |
| Frequency | Annually |
| Similar provision for States | State PSC report submitted to the Governor (Article 323(2)) |
| Governing Part of Constitution | Part XIV — Services under the Union and the States |
| Related body | State Public Service Commissions report similarly to respective Governors |
8. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central Law and a State Law is found in
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 300
(D) Entry 42, List III
Answer: (B) Article 254
Explanation: Article 254 of the Constitution deals with the “Inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and laws made by the Legislatures of States.” It lays down that when a law made by a State Legislature is repugnant to a law made by Parliament on a subject in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails and the State law is void to the extent of the repugnancy — unless the State law had received Presidential assent, in which case it prevails in that state, though Parliament can still override it later.
Article 254:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Repugnancy between Central and State laws |
| Applies to | Laws on subjects in the Concurrent List (List III, Seventh Schedule) |
| General rule | Central law prevails; State law void to extent of repugnancy (Article 254(1)) |
| Exception | If State law reserved for and received President’s assent, it prevails in that State (Article 254(2)) |
| Limitation on exception | Parliament can still enact a law adding to, amending, varying, or repealing the State law later |
| Related provision | Entry 42, List III deals with a different subject (Inter-State disputes over water) — not repugnancy |
| Related Article | Article 251 — similar principle for laws made under Articles 249 and 250 |
9. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj ?
(A) 243O
(B) 243
(C) 243A
(D) 243I
Answer: (B) 243
Explanation: Articles 243 to 243-O outline the entire framework of the Panchayati Raj system, but Article 243 specifically provides the definitions. Article 243 contains the definitions for terms used in Part IX of the Constitution, including “Gram Sabha,” “Panchayat,” “Panchayat area,” “Intermediate level,” and “District level”. It was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 to formalize local self-government in rural areas.
Part IX of the Constitution — Panchayats:
| Article | Subject |
|---|---|
| Article 243 | Definitions (e.g. “Panchayat”, “village”, “intermediate level”) |
| Article 243A | Gram Sabha |
| Article 243B | Constitution of Panchayats |
| Article 243C | Composition of Panchayats |
| Article 243D | Reservation of seats |
| Article 243E | Duration of Panchayats |
| Article 243G | Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats |
| Article 243H | Powers to impose taxes and funds |
| Article 243I | Constitution of State Finance Commission |
| Article 243K | Elections to Panchayats (State Election Commission) |
| Article 243O | Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters |
| Amendment | Inserted by 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 |
10. Article 227 of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) High Court’s power of superintendence
(B) judicial review
(C) powers of the Speaker
(D) election of the Vice-President
Answer: (A) High Court’s power of superintendence
Explanation: Article 227 of the Constitution vests every High Court with the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning within its territorial jurisdiction (except courts/tribunals dealing with the armed forces). This power is both administrative and judicial in nature, allowing the High Court to call for returns, make rules for practice and proceedings, and ensure subordinate courts function within the bounds of law.
Article 227:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Power of superintendence over courts |
| Vested in | Every High Court, over all courts/tribunals in its territorial jurisdiction |
| Exception | Courts/tribunals constituted under laws relating to the armed forces |
| Nature of power | Both administrative and judicial superintendence |
| Related power | High Court may call for returns from such courts, make/prescribe rules of practice |
| Distinguishing Article | Article 226 — power to issue writs (different from supervisory power under 227) |
| Landmark case | Waryam Singh v. Amarnath (1954) — scope of superintendence clarified |
| Origin | Derived from Section 224 of the Government of India Act, 1935 |
11. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board has been established under which Ministry?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(D) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: (C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Explanation: The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in 2003 under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to hear appeals against decisions of the Registrar under the Trade Marks Act and later the Patents Act, among other IP-related laws. It functioned as a specialised appellate tribunal for intellectual property disputes until it was abolished in 2021, with its functions transferred to High Courts and commercial courts.
Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB):
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Established | 2003 |
| Administering Ministry | Ministry of Commerce and Industry |
| Initial jurisdiction | Trade Marks Act, 1999 |
| Later jurisdiction added | Patents Act, 1970; Geographical Indications Act; Copyright Act; Plant Varieties Protection Act |
| Headquarters | Chennai |
| Abolished | 2021, via the Tribunals Reforms (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance/Act, 2021 |
| Functions transferred to | High Courts and Commercial Courts |
| Nature of body | Quasi-judicial appellate tribunal |
12. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336 ?
(A) Sikh Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Hindu Community
(D) Anglo-Indian Community
Answer: (D) Anglo-Indian Community
Explanation: Article 336 of the Constitution provides special provisions for the Anglo-Indian community with respect to Central Services. It states that Anglo-Indians would continue to have a reasonable representation in posts in the railway, customs, postal and telegraph services under the Union, on the same basis as prevailed before independence, for a specified transitional period.
Article 336:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Community covered | Anglo-Indian community |
| Services covered | Railway, Customs, Postal and Telegraph services under the Union |
| Nature of provision | Reservation/reasonable representation in these services |
| Basis | Same basis as existed before 15 August 1947 |
| Location in Constitution | Part XVI — Special Provisions relating to certain classes |
| Related Article | Article 331 — reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in Lok Sabha (by nomination, if inadequately represented) |
| Related Article (State) | Article 333 — nomination of Anglo-Indian to State Legislative Assemblies |
| Current status | Reservation provisions for Anglo-Indians in legislatures lapsed after the 104th Amendment Act, 2019 |
13. Which of the Articles deals with the grants in aid by the Union Government to the States ?
(A) Article 270
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 275
(D) Article 265
Answer: (C) Article 275
Explanation: Article 275 of the Constitution provides for statutory grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India to such states as Parliament determines to be in need of assistance, with different sums fixed for different states. It also includes specific provision for grants to promote the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and to raise the level of administration of Scheduled Areas. These grants are given on the recommendation of the Finance Commission and are distinct from the discretionary grants under Article 282.
Article 275:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Statutory grants-in-aid from Union to States |
| Source of fund | Consolidated Fund of India |
| Determining authority | Parliament, generally on recommendation of the Finance Commission |
| Special grants included | For welfare of Scheduled Tribes; administration of Scheduled Areas (esp. Assam) |
| Nature | Statutory, need-based grants (unlike Article 282’s discretionary grants) |
| Related Article | Article 280 — establishes the Finance Commission, which recommends these grants |
| Related Article | Article 282 — discretionary grants for any public purpose, by Union or State |
| Related Article | Article 270 — deals with distribution of taxes between Union and States |
14. In India, political parties are given recognition by
(A) Election Commission
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) Law Commission
Answer: (A) Election Commission
Explanation: In India, political parties are registered and granted recognition (as National or State parties) by the Election Commission of India under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, and registration is done under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Recognition status determines eligibility for reserved symbols and other privileges during elections.
Recognition of Political Parties:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Authority | Election Commission of India |
| Registration governed by | Section 29A, Representation of the People Act, 1951 |
| Symbol allotment governed by | Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 |
| Categories | National Party, State Party, Registered Unrecognised Party |
| National party criteria (any one) | Wins 2% of Lok Sabha seats from ≥3 states; or 6% vote share in 4 states + 4 Lok Sabha seats; or recognised as State party in 4+ states |
| State party criteria | 6% vote share + 2 seats in state assembly, or other prescribed thresholds |
| Nature of ECI here | Quasi-judicial function while deciding disputes on party symbols/recognition |
| Related body | Registrar of political parties function also performed by ECI |
15. Which committee recommended Constitutional status to Panchayat ?
(A) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Answer: (A) L.M. Singhvi Committee
Explanation: The L. M. Singhvi Committee, constituted in 1986 to examine the revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions, was the first to recommend that Panchayati Raj Institutions be given constitutional status, along with constitutionally mandated regular elections. This recommendation formed the basis for the subsequent 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which finally granted Panchayats constitutional recognition.
L. M. Singhvi Committee:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 1986 |
| Chairman | L. M. Singhvi |
| Key recommendation | Constitutional status for Panchayati Raj Institutions |
| Other recommendations | State Finance Commission; Nyaya Panchayats; reservation of seats for women |
| Constitutional outcome | 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 |
| Related committee (not for constitutional status) | Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) — recommended three-tier system, not constitutional status |
| Related committee | Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) — recommended two-tier system, also examined decentralisation |
| Significance | First formal recommendation for constitutionalising local self-government in India |
16. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures?
(A) Article 342
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 340
(D) Article 339
Answer: (C) Article 340
Explanation: Article 340 of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within India, the difficulties they face, and to make recommendations for their advancement, including grants-in-aid. This provision was used to appoint both the Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) and the Mandal Commission (1979) to identify Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
Article 340:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Appointment of Commission to investigate backward classes |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Purpose | Investigate conditions of socially/educationally backward classes; recommend steps for advancement |
| First Commission under this Article | Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) |
| Second Commission under this Article | Mandal Commission (1979), chaired by B. P. Mandal |
| Report follow-up | Report + action taken memorandum laid before Parliament |
| Related Article | Article 338 — National Commission for SCs |
| Related Article | Article 338B — National Commission for Backward Classes (102nd Amendment, 2018) |
17. The members of the Election Commission in the Centre are appointed by
(A) Vice-President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) President of India
Answer: (D) President of India
Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners of the Election Commission of India are appointed by the President of India. Traditionally this appointment was made on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 has since introduced a selection committee process for recommending names to the President.
Appointment of Election Commissioners:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Relevant Article | Article 324(2) |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Composition of ECI | 1 Chief Election Commissioner + such number of Election Commissioners as President may fix |
| Tenure | 6 years or till age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Removal of CEC | Same manner as a Supreme Court Judge (Article 324(5)) |
| Removal of other ECs | Only on recommendation of CEC |
| Recent legal change | CEC and Other ECs (Appointment…) Act, 2023 — selection committee: PM, Leader of Opposition (LoP), and a Union Cabinet Minister |
| Landmark case | Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) — led to the new appointment process |
18. Which Article of Indian Constitution contains special provisions with regard to the State of Maharashtra ?
(A) 371
(B) 371 A
(C) 371 B
(D) 371 D
Answer: (A) 371
Explanation: Article 371 of the Constitution contains special provisions with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat. It empowers the President to provide, by order, for the constitution of separate development boards for regions like Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra (and Saurashtra and Kutch in Gujarat), for equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure and equitable arrangements for technical education and vocational training opportunities.
Article 371 Series:
| Article | State(s) Covered | Key Feature |
|---|---|---|
| 371 | Maharashtra, Gujarat | Separate development boards for backward regions (e.g. Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, Kutch) |
| 371A | Nagaland | Protection of Naga customary law, religious/social practices; land and resources |
| 371B | Assam | Special committee of Assembly for tribal areas |
| 371C | Manipur | Committee for Hill Areas |
| 371D | Andhra Pradesh/Telangana | Equitable opportunities in public employment and education |
| 371F | Sikkim | Special provisions post-merger with India |
| 371G | Mizoram | Protection of Mizo customary law and practices |
| 371I | Goa | (Minimal special provisions, mainly re: Assembly size) |
19. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST ?
(A) Article 337
(B) Article 334
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 339
Answer: (C) Article 338
Explanation: Article 338 of the Constitution provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, while Article 338A (inserted by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003) separately provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, bifurcating what was originally a combined commission. Prior to 2003, Article 338 itself covered a combined National Commission for SCs and STs.
National Commissions for SC/ST:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Article for NCSC | Article 338 |
| Article for NCST | Article 338A (inserted by 89th Amendment Act, 2003) |
| Original position | Single combined Commission for SCs and STs under Article 338 (before 2003) |
| Status | Both are constitutional bodies |
| Composition | Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and 3 other Members |
| Powers | Civil court powers while investigating specific complaints (summoning, evidence, etc.) |
| Related Article | Article 338B — National Commission for Backward Classes (102nd Amendment, 2018) |
| Reporting | Annual reports presented to the President, laid before Parliament |
20. The 100 th amendment in Indian Constitution provides
(A) protection of livelihood and regulation of street vending
(B) acquiring of territories by India and transfer of certain territories to Bangladesh
(C) emoluments, allowances and privileges to Governors
(D) reorganisation of the State of Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (B) acquiring of territories by India and transfer of certain territories to Bangladesh
Explanation: The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 gave effect to the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) between India and Bangladesh, under which India acquired certain territories from Bangladesh and transferred certain enclaves to Bangladesh, exchanging 111 Indian enclaves in Bangladesh for 51 Bangladeshi enclaves in India, along with adjustment of the land boundary.
100th Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 2015 |
| Subject | India–Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) implementation |
| Original LBA signed | 1974 (Indira-Mujib Pact); protocol signed 2011 |
| Indian enclaves transferred to Bangladesh | 111 enclaves |
| Bangladeshi enclaves transferred to India | 51 enclaves |
| States affected | Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, Tripura |
| Schedules amended | First Schedule (territories of states) |
| Significance | Resolved a decades-old border/enclave dispute between the two countries |
21. As per Constitution of India, the Legislative Assembly of a State consists of not more than 500 and not less than 60 Members, but which one of the following states has 32 Members ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Sikkim
(C) Goa
(D) Puducherry
Answer: (B) Sikkim
Explanation: As per Article 170 of the Constitution of India, a State Legislative Assembly must have a maximum of 500 members and a minimum of 60 members. Because of small populations and smaller geographical regions, Parliament made special exceptions for specific states via constitutional amendments. Sikkim was granted an exception under Article 371F, fixing its Legislative Assembly size at 32 members.
Comparison of Legislative Seats for the Options:
| State / UT | Number of Legislative Assembly Seats |
|---|---|
| Sikkim | 32 seats (Lowest among all full states) |
| Puducherry | 30 seats (+3 nominated by Central Govt) |
| Goa | 40 seats |
| Delhi | 70 seats |
22. ‘ Doctrine of Pleasure ‘ was introduced in
(A) Article 317
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 310
(D) Article 318
Answer: (C) Article 310
Explanation: The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ is introduced under Article 310 of the Constitution, which states that members of the defence services, civil services of the Union, and All-India Services hold office “during the pleasure of the President,” while civil servants of a State hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. This means their tenure can, in principle, be terminated at any time without notice, subject to the procedural safeguards provided under Article 311.
Doctrine of Pleasure:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Article | Article 310 |
| Applies to | Members of Defence Services, Civil Services of the Union, All-India Services (President’s pleasure); State civil servants (Governor’s pleasure) |
| Origin | Derived from English common law principle (“servants of the Crown hold office at pleasure”) |
| Limiting Article | Article 311 — provides procedural safeguards (reasonable opportunity of hearing) before dismissal/removal/reduction in rank |
| Exceptions to doctrine | Supreme Court/High Court Judges, CAG, Chief Election Commissioner — not covered by “pleasure” doctrine |
| Nature | Not absolute; subject to constitutional safeguards and judicial review |
| Related Article | Article 312 — All-India Services |
WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2022
1. Which committee recommended the 27% reservation of the OBCs in the government jobs in 1991?
(A) Jogendra Nath Mandal committee
(B) B. P. Mandal committee
(C) Dilip Singh Bhuria committee
(D) U. N. Debar committee
Answer: (B) B. P. Mandal committee
Explanation: The Mandal Commission (Second Backward Classes Commission), chaired by B. P. Mandal, was set up in 1979 and submitted its report in 1980, recommending 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in government jobs and educational institutions. This recommendation was implemented by the V. P. Singh government in 1990 and formally notified for government jobs in 1991, and later upheld (with the 50% ceiling and creamy layer exclusion) by the Supreme Court in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992).
Mandal Commission:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Constituted | 1979, under Article 340 |
| Chairman | B. P. Mandal |
| Report submitted | 1980 |
| Key recommendation | 27% reservation for OBCs in central government jobs and public sector |
| Implementation | Announced by PM V.P. Singh, 1990; implemented 1991 |
| Landmark case upholding it | Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) — added creamy layer exclusion, capped total reservation at 50% |
| Related earlier Commission | Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) — First Backward Classes Commission |
| Extended to education | 93rd Amendment Act, 2005 — OBC reservation in educational institutions |
2. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age for 18 years for the Indian Citizen was made to become eligible to vote?
(A) 59th Amendment Act, 1988
(B) 60th Amendment Act, 1988
(C) 61st Amendment Act, 1989
(D) 62nd Amendment Act, 1989
Answer: (C) 61st Amendment Act, 1989
Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989 amended Article 326 of the Constitution to reduce the minimum voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years, significantly expanding the electorate, particularly among the youth.
61st Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 1989 |
| Article amended | Article 326 |
| Change made | Reduced voting age from 21 to 18 years |
| Applicable to | Elections to Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies |
| Effect | Significant expansion of the electorate |
| Related Article | Article 326 — elections on basis of adult suffrage |
| Prime Minister at the time | Rajiv Gandhi |
| Came into force | 1989 (ahead of the 1989 general elections) |
3. Which Constitutional Amendment Act, provided reservation in admission in private unaided educational institutions for students belonging to scheduled castes/tribes and other backward classes?
(A) 92nd Amendment
(B) 93rd Amendment
(C) 94th Amendment
(D) 95th Amendment
Answer: (B) 93rd Amendment
Explanation: The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005 inserted Clause (5) into Article 15, empowering the State to make special provisions, including reservation, for socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs), SCs and STs in admissions to educational institutions — including private unaided institutions — except minority educational institutions protected under Article 30(1). This amendment enabled the subsequent Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006, which implemented 27% OBC reservation in central institutions.
93rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 2005 |
| Article amended | Article 15 (inserted Clause 5) |
| Effect | Enables reservation for SEBCs/SC/ST in admissions to educational institutions, including private unaided ones |
| Exclusion | Minority educational institutions under Article 30(1) |
| Follow-up legislation | Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006 |
| Landmark case | Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (2008) — upheld amendment, excluded creamy layer |
| Related later amendment | 103rd Amendment Act, 2019 — added EWS reservation via Article 15(6)/16(6) |
| Related earlier provision | Article 15(4) — added by 1st Amendment, 1951 |
4. Kaka Kalelkar Commission is related to
(A) The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(B) The National Scheduled Tribes Commission
(C) The Backward Class Commission
(D) The Anglo Indian community
Answer: (C) The Backward Class Commission
Explanation: The Kaka Kalelkar Commission, appointed in 1953 under Article 340, was India’s first Backward Classes Commission, chaired by Kaka Kalelkar. It was tasked with determining the criteria for identifying socially and educationally backward classes and recommending measures for their advancement. Although it submitted its report in 1955 identifying around 2,399 backward castes, its recommendations were largely not implemented due to internal disagreements, including reservations expressed by the Chairman himself.
Kaka Kalelkar Commission:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Appointed | 1953, under Article 340 |
| Chairman | Kaka Kalelkar |
| Report submitted | 1955 |
| Purpose | Identify socially and educationally backward classes |
| Findings | Identified about 2,399 backward castes; 837 as “most backward” |
| Outcome | Recommendations largely not implemented; Chairman himself expressed reservations on caste-based criteria |
| Successor Commission | Mandal Commission (1979), chaired by B. P. Mandal |
| Significance | First Backward Classes Commission of independent India |
5. Which schedule of the Constitution of India deals with administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as Scheduled Tribes ?
(A) Third Schedule
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Seventh Schedule
(D) Ninth Schedule
Answer: (B) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (which are covered under the Sixth Schedule instead). It empowers the Governor to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas and provides for a Tribes Advisory Council in each state with such areas.
Fifth Schedule:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes |
| Applies to | States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram |
| Key body | Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) in each state with Scheduled Areas |
| Key authority | Governor — submits annual reports to President on administration of Scheduled Areas |
| Related Article | Article 244(1) |
| Contrast — Sixth Schedule | Deals with administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram (Article 244(2)) |
| Key feature | Governor can direct that a particular Act of Parliament/State Legislature not apply to a Scheduled Area |
| Related provision | PESA Act, 1996 — extends Panchayati Raj to Scheduled Areas under Fifth Schedule |
6. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India every
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
Answer: (D) 5 years
Explanation: Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President is required to constitute a Finance Commission every five years, or earlier if considered necessary, to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, and among the States themselves, along with other matters referred to it.
Finance Commission:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Constituting Article | Article 280 |
| Constituted by | President of India |
| Frequency | Every 5 years, or earlier if necessary |
| Composition | Chairman + 4 other members |
| First Finance Commission | Constituted 1951, chaired by K. C. Neogy |
| Current (as of recent years) | 15th Finance Commission, chaired by N. K. Singh (award period 2021-26) |
| Main function | Recommend distribution of tax proceeds between Union and States; principles governing grants-in-aid |
| Related Article | Article 275 — grants-in-aid recommended by Finance Commission |
7. Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the Finance Commission appointed by President of India?
(A) 279
(B) 280
(C) 281
(D) 282
Answer: (B) 280
Explanation: Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission by the President of India, every five years or earlier as deemed necessary, to make recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, and on the principles governing grants-in-aid to States from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Article 280:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Constitution of Finance Commission |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Frequency | Every 5 years, or earlier if necessary |
| Composition | Chairman + 4 other members (as prescribed by Parliament by law) |
| Main functions | Distribution of net tax proceeds between Union and States; grants-in-aid principles; measures to augment State/Panchayat/Municipality funds |
| Governing law for composition | Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 |
| Related Article | Article 275 — grants-in-aid based on FC recommendations |
| Related Article | Article 281 — FC report to be laid before Parliament |
WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2021
1. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (A) President
Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by the President of India. This applies uniformly to the Chairman as well as ordinary members of the Commission, who hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Appointment of UPSC Chairman:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Relevant Article | Article 316 |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Term of office | 6 years or till age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Removal | By President, on grounds under Article 317 (misbehaviour, after Supreme Court inquiry) |
| Nature of body | Constitutional body (Part XIV, Articles 315-323) |
| Related provision | State PSC Chairman/members appointed by the Governor (Article 316) |
| Related Article | Article 315 — establishment of Public Service Commissions for Union and States |
| Related Article | Article 323 — UPSC’s annual report submitted to the President |
2. The 101st Amendment of the Indian Constitution is related to
(A) Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Maithili & Santhali were added in the Eighth Schedule.
(B) extend the reservation of seats for the SC & STs till 2020.
(C) Constitutional status granted to National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
(D) G.S.T.
Answer: (D) G.S.T.
Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 paved the way for the rollout of a comprehensive, nationwide indirect tax network (GST) in India, replacing multiple central and state taxes. It introduced crucial articles like Article 246A (giving states power to levy GST), Article 269A (levy and collection of IGST), and Article 279A (constitution of the GST Council).
- This granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) by inserting Article 338B.
- This amendment added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule, bringing the total number of official languages to 22.
- This extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies until 2020.
3. Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General is mentioned in which Article?
(A) Article 137
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 98
(D) Article 150
Answer: (B) Article 149
Explanation: Article 149 of the Constitution deals with the duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States, and of any other authority or body as may be prescribed. It authorises Parliament to determine these duties and powers by law, and until such provision is made, the CAG exercises the duties and powers provided for by or under the Government of India Act, 1935.
Article 149:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Duties and powers of the CAG |
| Governing law | CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971 |
| Related Article | Article 148 — establishment and appointment of CAG |
| Related Article | Article 150 — form of accounts of Union/States, prescribed by President on CAG’s advice |
| Related Article | Article 151 — CAG’s audit reports submitted to President/Governor, laid before Parliament/Legislature |
| Appointing authority (CAG) | President of India |
| Tenure (CAG) | 6 years or till age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Removal | Same manner as a Supreme Court Judge |
4. Which Article of the Constitution of India contains provisions for a National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 365
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 337
Answer: (C) Article 338
Explanation: Article 338 of the Constitution provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Originally (before the 89th Amendment Act, 2003) it provided for a combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes; after 2003, the STs got a separate commission under the newly inserted Article 338A, while Article 338 continued to cover the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
Article 338:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | National Commission for Scheduled Castes |
| Status | Constitutional body |
| Composition | Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and 3 other Members |
| Powers | Civil court powers (summoning persons, examining evidence, etc.) while investigating specific complaints |
| Related Article | Article 338A — National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (added by 89th Amendment, 2003) |
| Related Article | Article 338B — National Commission for Backward Classes (added by 102nd Amendment, 2018) |
| Reporting | Annual report to the President, laid before Parliament with action-taken memorandum |
| Historical note | Before 2003, Article 338 covered a combined Commission for SCs and STs |
5. The Election Commission of India is a
(A) Constitutional body
(B) Statutory body
(C) Private body
(D) Government controlled body
Answer: (A) Constitutional body
Explanation: The Election Commission of India is a Constitutional body, established under Article 324 of the Constitution, which vests in it the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Being constitutionally created, its existence and core powers cannot be altered by ordinary legislation alone.
Election Commission of India:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Constituting Article | Article 324 |
| Nature | Constitutional, permanent, independent body |
| Established | 25 January 1950 (celebrated as National Voters’ Day) |
| Original composition | Single-member body until 1989 |
| Current composition | 1 Chief Election Commissioner + 2 Election Commissioners |
| Functions | Superintendence, direction, control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, President, Vice-President |
| Related Article | Article 325 — no discrimination in electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex |
| Related Article | Article 326 — elections based on adult suffrage |
6. The Election Commission holds election for
(A) the Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the President and the Vice-President
(B) the Parliament, State Legislative Assemblies and the State Council
(C) the Parliament
(D) the Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: (A) the Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the President and the Vice-President
Explanation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India is vested with the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, to the Legislature of every State, and to the offices of President and Vice-President. It does not conduct elections to local bodies (Panchayats/Municipalities), which fall under separate State Election Commissions established under Articles 243K and 243ZA.
Election Commission’s Jurisdiction:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 324 |
| Elections conducted | Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha (indirectly, via oversight), State Legislative Assemblies/Councils, offices of President and Vice-President |
| Not covered by ECI | Elections to Panchayats and Municipalities |
| Body for local body elections | State Election Commission (separate constitutional body under Article 243K) |
| Related Article | Article 325 — common electoral roll, no discrimination |
| Related Article | Article 326 — universal adult suffrage |
| Related Article | Article 327 — Parliament’s power to make provision for elections |
7. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
(A) Sukumar Sen
(B) T. N. Seshan
(C) Sushil Chandra
(D) Sunil Arora
Answer: (A) Sukumar Sen
Explanation: Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India, serving from 21 March 1950 to 19 December 1958. He is credited with successfully organising India’s first general elections (1951-52), a massive logistical exercise given the country’s size, diversity, and largely illiterate electorate at the time.
First Chief Election Commissioner:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Name | Sukumar Sen |
| Tenure | 21 March 1950 – 19 December 1958 |
| Key achievement | Conducted India’s first general elections (1951-52) |
| Background | Indian Civil Service (ICS) officer, former Chief Secretary of West Bengal |
| Later role | Also supervised Sudan’s first elections after retirement |
| Successor CEC | K. V. K. Sundaram |
8. Which Article mentions about the Finance Commission ?
(A) Article 245
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 290
(D) Article 280
Answer: (D) Article 280
Explanation: Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission by the President, every five years or earlier if necessary, to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid to the States.
Article 280:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Constitution of Finance Commission |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Frequency | Every 5 years, or earlier if necessary |
| Composition | Chairman + 4 other members |
| Main functions | Tax revenue distribution between Union/States; grants-in-aid principles; measures to augment State/local body funds |
| Governing law | Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 |
9. Article 320 of the Indian Constitution deals with ______.
(A) functions of Public Service Commissions
(B) functions of Panchayati Raj Institutions
(C) Administrative Tribunals
(D) power of Parliament to vary or revoke
Answer: (A) functions of Public Service Commissions
Explanation: Article 320 of the Constitution deals with the functions of the Public Service Commissions (both Union and State). It lays down that the Commission shall be consulted on matters relating to recruitment to civil services, principles for promotions/transfers, disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the government, and claims for reimbursement of legal expenses, among other functions.
Article 320:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Functions of Public Service Commissions |
| Applies to | Both UPSC and State PSCs |
| Matters covered | Recruitment methods, principles for appointments/promotions/transfers, disciplinary matters, legal expense claims |
| Exclusions (may be regulated by law) | Governor/President can exclude certain posts/services from consultation |
10. Whenever the government spends more than it collects through revenue, the resulting imbalance is known as
(A) Public deficit
(B) Market deficit
(C) Government deficit
(D) Budget deficit
Answer: (D) Budget deficit
Explanation: Whenever the government’s total expenditure exceeds its total revenue in a given financial year, the resulting imbalance is known as a Budget Deficit. It reflects the gap the government needs to bridge through borrowing or other financing sources, and forms a key indicator of fiscal health along with related measures like fiscal deficit and revenue deficit.
Types of Government Deficit:
| Deficit Type | Definition |
|---|---|
| Budget Deficit | Total expenditure exceeds total revenue (revenue + capital) |
| Fiscal Deficit | Total expenditure exceeds total revenue excluding borrowings |
| Revenue Deficit | Revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts |
| Primary Deficit | Fiscal deficit minus interest payments |
| Effective Revenue Deficit | Revenue deficit minus grants for creation of capital assets |
| Monetary policy link | Financed via borrowing, often through RBI or market instruments |
| Reporting body | Presented annually in the Union Budget by Ministry of Finance |
| Related Act | FRBM Act, 2003 — sets targets for reducing fiscal/revenue deficit |
11. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Vice-President
(C) President
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (C) President
Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India. Historically this was done on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 has since introduced a selection committee (Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, and a Union Cabinet Minister) to recommend names to the President.
Chief Election Commissioner Appointment:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Relevant Article | Article 324(2) |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Tenure | 6 years or till age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Removal | Same manner as a Supreme Court Judge (Article 324(5)) |
| Recent legal reform | CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023 — Selection Committee: PM, LoP, one Union Cabinet Minister |
| Landmark case | Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) |
| First CEC | Sukumar Sen (1950) |
12. Article 312 of the Indian Constitution deals with ________.
(A) All-India Services
(B) Annual Financial Statement
(C) Administrative Tribunals
(D) Gram Sabha
Answer: (A) All-India Services
Explanation: Article 312 of the Constitution empowers Parliament, if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) declares by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, to create by law one or more All-India Services common to the Union and the States. The Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest Service (IFoS) are examples of such All-India Services.
Article 312:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Creation of All-India Services |
| Special procedure | Rajya Sabha resolution by 2/3rd majority of members present and voting |
| Purpose | Services common to Union and States, in “national interest” |
| Existing All-India Services | IAS, IPS, IFoS (Indian Forest Service, added 1966) |
| Nature | Members serve under both Union and State governments, recruited centrally |
| Governing recruitment body | UPSC conducts Civil Services Examination for these services |
13. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for Parliament and Legislature vests with the
(A) President
(B) Election Commission
(C) Cabinet
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B) Election Commission
Explanation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State vests in the Election Commission of India. The actual preparation work is carried out through Electoral Registration Officers under the ECI’s direction, in accordance with the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
Preparation of Electoral Rolls:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Vested in | Election Commission of India |
| Governing Article | Article 324 |
| Governing Act | Representation of the People Act, 1950 |
| Officers involved | Electoral Registration Officers, Booth Level Officers |
| Special exercise | Special Summary Revision — periodic updating of electoral rolls |
| Related body | Chief Electoral Officer at the state level assists in this process |
WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2020
1. Hindi in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union according to which Article in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Article 342
(B) Article 383
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 344
Answer: (C) Article 343
Explanation: Article 343 of the Constitution declares Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. It also provided that English would continue to be used for official purposes for a period of 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., until 1965), a period later extended indefinitely by the Official Languages Act, 1963.
Article 343:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Official language of the Union |
| Language declared | Hindi in Devanagari script |
| Numeral form specified | International form of Indian numerals |
| Transitional provision | English to continue for 15 years from commencement (till 1965) |
| Extending legislation | Official Languages Act, 1963 — continued English use indefinitely |
2. Who appoints the Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission ? ( Articles 315 to 323 )
(A) The Governor of a State
(B) The Chief Justice of the High Court of the State
(C) The President of India
(D) The Chief Minister of the State
Answer: (A) The Governor of a State
Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, the Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of that State. They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier, and can be removed by the President under the grounds and procedure specified in Article 317.
State Public Service Commission:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Appointing authority | Governor of the State |
| Governing Article | Article 316 |
| Term of office | 6 years or age 62, whichever is earlier |
| Removal authority | President of India (Article 317) — following Supreme Court inquiry for misbehaviour |
| Joint Commission option | Two or more states may have a Joint State Public Service Commission (Article 315(2)) |
3. To ensure free and fair elections the Constitution of India establishes an Election Commission . The members of the Election Commission in the Centre are appointed by whom ?
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Vice-President of India
Answer: (A) President of India
Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the members of the Election Commission of India — including the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners — are appointed by the President of India. This was traditionally done on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the 2023 Act has since introduced a selection committee mechanism for making recommendations to the President.
Appointment of Election Commission Members:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Relevant Article | Article 324(2) |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Tenure | 6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Removal of CEC | Same manner as a Supreme Court Judge |
| Removal of other ECs | Only on recommendation of the CEC |
| Recent reform | CEC and Other ECs (Appointment…) Act, 2023 — Selection Committee: PM, LoP, one Union Cabinet Minister |
| Landmark case | Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) |
| Current composition | 1 CEC + 2 ECs |
4. Sanskrit is the 2nd official language of which state in India ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: (C) Uttarakhand
Explanation: Himachal Pradesh also declared Sanskrit as its second official language later in 2019 Uttarakhand made Sanskrit its second official language in January 2010, becoming the first state in India to do so. The primary official language of Uttarakhand is Hindi.
5. The Constitution 89th Amendment Act, 2003 established :
(A) Right to Education as the Fundamental Right to all the children under 14 years in India.
(B) The “National Commission for Scheduled Castes” and the “National Commission for Scheduled Tribes” .
(C) Reservation of seats for women in local bodies.
(D) Three language policy.
Answer: (B) The “National Commission for Scheduled Castes” and the “National Commission for Scheduled Tribes”
Explanation: The Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003 bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate constitutional bodies — the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (continuing under Article 338) and a newly created National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (under the newly inserted Article 338A) — to allow focused attention on the distinct concerns of each community.
89th Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 2003 |
| Effect | Created separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes |
| Article inserted | Article 338A |
| Article retained (for SCs) | Article 338 |
| Reason | To give focused, independent attention to ST-specific concerns, distinct from SCs |
| Composition of NCST | Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, 3 other Members |
| Related later amendment | 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 — created National Commission for Backward Classes (Article 338B) |
| Related unrelated option | Right to Education as Fundamental Right came via 86th Amendment Act, 2002 (Article 21A) |
6. The sixty-first Amendment of the Constitution of India , lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years in which year ?
(A) 1984
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1990
Answer: (C) 1989
Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989 lowered the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years, by amending Article 326 of the Constitution. This significantly widened India’s electorate ahead of the 1989 general elections.
61st Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 1989 |
| Article amended | Article 326 |
| Change | Voting age reduced from 21 to 18 years |
| Applicable elections | Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies |
| Prime Minister at the time | Rajiv Gandhi |
| Immediate effect | Applied ahead of the 1989 Lok Sabha general elections |
| Significance | Major expansion of India’s electorate, especially youth |
7. When was the first general election to the Lok Sabha in India held ?
(A) 1950 – 51
(B) 1951 – 52
(C) 1953 – 54
(D) 1954 – 55
Answer: (B) 1951 – 52
Explanation: India’s first general election to the Lok Sabha was held over several months spanning October 1951 to February 1952, under the supervision of the first Chief Election Commissioner, Sukumar Sen. It was a massive logistical undertaking given the country’s size, diversity, and predominantly illiterate electorate at the time, and is widely regarded as one of the largest democratic exercises in world history up to that point.
First General Election:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Period held | October 1951 – February 1952 |
| Chief Election Commissioner | Sukumar Sen |
| Total electorate | Approx. 17.3 crore voters |
| Seats in Lok Sabha (1st) | 489 |
| Winning party | Indian National Congress |
| First Prime Minister post-election | Jawaharlal Nehru |
| Voting method | Separate ballot boxes for each candidate (due to widespread illiteracy) |
| Significance | Largest election exercise in the world at that time |
WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2019
1. Finance Commission consists of
(A) Chairman and three other members
(B) Chairman and four other members
(C) Four whole time members
(D) Five members
Answer: (B) Chairman and four other members
Explanation: The Finance Commission, as constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution and governed by the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, consists of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President. The qualifications, term of office, and manner of selection of these members are also prescribed by Parliament through this Act.
Finance Commission Composition:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Composition | Chairman + 4 other members |
| Constituting Article | Article 280 |
| Governing Act | Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Frequency of constitution | Every 5 years, or earlier if necessary |
| First Finance Commission | 1951, chaired by K. C. Neogy |
| Recent Finance Commission | 15th Finance Commission, chaired by N. K. Singh (2021-26 award period) |
| Main function | Recommend distribution of tax proceeds between Union and States |
2. Under Article 321 of the Constitution , the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the
(A) Chairman of the Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Parliament
(D) President
Answer: (C) Parliament
Explanation: According to Article 321 of the Constitution of India, an Act made by Parliament may provide for the exercise of additional functions by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) regarding the services of the Union. Similarly, the same article vests the power to extend the functions of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) in the respective State Legislature.
- Chairman / Ministry of Home Affairs: Neither has the constitutional authority to modify or extend the statutory functions of this independent constitutional body.
- President: While the President appoints the Chairman and members of the UPSC (Article 316) and makes regulations regarding their conditions of service (Article 318), the President cannot expand the legislative jurisdiction or functions of the commission; that power is explicitly reserved for Parliament.
3. The Union Public Service Commission has advisory power in the following matters: (Article 320)
(A) Methods of recruitment to Civil service
(B) Disciplinary matters affecting a public servant
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C) Both of the above
Explanation: Under Article 320 of the Constitution, the Union Public Service Commission (and State Public Service Commissions) must be consulted by the government on matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and civil posts, as well as on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the Government of India in a civil capacity, including matters of promotion, transfer, and suitability for such purposes.
Article 320 — UPSC’s Advisory Role:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 320 |
| Consulted on | Methods of recruitment to civil services and posts |
| Also consulted on | Disciplinary matters affecting a civil servant (dismissal, removal, reduction in rank, etc.) |
| Other matters | Suitability of candidates for appointment; transfer from one service to another; claims for legal expenses |
| Advisory nature | Government not bound to accept UPSC’s advice, but must record reasons for departure to Parliament |
| Exclusions | President/Governor may specify posts/matters exempted from consultation |
4. The term of the members of a State Public Service Commission is of (Article 316)
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 10 years
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) 5 years
Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, a member of a State Public Service Commission holds office for a term of five years from the date of appointment, or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier — whichever condition is met first determines when the member’s term ends.
State PSC — Term of Members:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 316 |
| Term of office | 5 years or age 62, whichever is earlier |
| Comparable UPSC term | 6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Appointing authority | Governor of the State |
| Removal | By President, on grounds under Article 317 |
| Resignation | Member may resign by writing to the Governor |
5. Provisions relating to Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions are contained in
(A) Part XIV Chapter I, Articles 315-323
(B) Part XIV Chapter II, Artic1es 315-323
(C) Part XIV Chapter I, Articles 308-318
(D) Part XIV Chapter II, Articles 308-318
Answer: (B) Part XIV Chapter II, Articles 315-323
Explanation: Covers Articles 308 to 314. It deals with recruitment and conditions of service for public servants (such as All India Services like IAS and IPS). Covers Articles 315 to 323. It specifically establishes the composition, appointment, powers, and functions of both the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and the State Public Service Commissions (SPSC).
- Article 323: Presentation of annual reports by the commissions.
- Article 315: Establishment of Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States.
- Article 316: Appointment and term of office of members.
- Article 320: Core functions and duties of Public Service Commissions.
6. A member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehavior only after the enquiry has been held by
(A) Joint Parliamentary Committee.
(B) Committee constituted by the Governor of the concerned State.
(C) High Court of the concerned State.
(D) Supreme Court of India.
Answer: (D) Supreme Court of India
Explanation: Under Article 317 of the Constitution, a member of a State Public Service Commission (or the UPSC) can be removed from office by the President on grounds of misbehaviour only after the Supreme Court, on a reference made by the President, has held an inquiry and reported that the member ought to be removed on such grounds.
Removal of PSC Member:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 317 |
| Removing authority | President of India |
| Mandatory inquiry by | Supreme Court of India (on reference by the President) |
| Grounds for removal | Misbehaviour, insolvency, engaging in paid employment outside duties, infirmity of mind/body |
| Suspension pending inquiry | President may suspend the member during the Supreme Court’s inquiry |
| Applicable to | Both UPSC and State PSC members |
| Similar protection | Given to Supreme Court/High Court Judges (Article 124(4)) |
7. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
Answer: (D) 5 years
Explanation: Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India every five years, or earlier if considered necessary, to make recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid.
Finance Commission:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Constituting Article | Article 280 |
| Frequency | Every 5 years, or earlier if necessary |
| Composition | Chairman + 4 other members |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| First Finance Commission | 1951, chaired by K. C. Neogy |
| Recent Finance Commission | 15th FC, chaired by N. K. Singh (2021-26 award period) |
| Main function | Distribution of tax proceeds; grants-in-aid principles |
8. The Union Public Service Commission submits its annual report on its work to
(A) the Chief Justice of India
(B) the Parliament
(C) the President
(D) the Union Home Minister
Answer: (C) the President
Explanation: Under Article 323(1) of the Constitution, the Union Public Service Commission is required to present an annual report on the work done by it to the President of India. The President then places this report before both Houses of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on its recommendations, including reasons for non-acceptance where applicable.
UPSC Annual Report:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Relevant Article | Article 323(1) |
| Report submitted to | President of India |
| Subsequent action | President lays report before Parliament with action-taken memorandum |
| Frequency | Annually |
| State PSC equivalent | Reports to the Governor (Article 323(2)) |
| Governing Part | Part XIV — Services under the Union and the States |
9. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of election to
(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Offices of President and Vice President
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India is responsible for the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, to the Legislature of every State, and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India — covering all three categories listed.
Election Commission’s Electoral Responsibility:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 324 |
| Elections covered | Parliament (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha via oversight), State Legislatures, offices of President and Vice-President |
| Not covered | Panchayat and Municipality elections (handled by State Election Commissions) |
WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2018
1. Chairman and other members of the Union and State Public Service Commission are appointed by
(A) the President
(B) the President and Governor of respective States
(C) the Prime Minister and Chief Minister of respective States
(D) Both (A) & (C)
Answer: (B) the President and Governor of respective States
Explanation: According to Article 316 of the Constitution of India, the appointment authority is divided between the federal and state heads:
- Union Public Service Commission (UPSC): The Chairman and other members are appointed by the President.
- State Public Service Commissions (SPSC): The Chairman and other members are appointed by the Governor of the respective State.
- Joint Public Service Commission (JPSC): If two or more states share a joint commission, its members are appointed by the President.
While the Governor has the power to appoint the members of a State Public Service Commission, the Governor cannot remove them. Under Article 317, the power to remove members of both the UPSC and SPSC rests exclusively with the President.
2. The members of UPSC hold the office
(A) during the pleasure of President
(B) as long as they enjoy the confidence in Parliament
(C) for life or till they attain the age of 70 years
(D) for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years
Answer: (D) for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years
Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, a member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a term of six years from the date on which they enter their office, or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever event occurs earlier. This ensures both a fixed tenure and an upper age limit for UPSC members.
Tenure of UPSC Members:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 316 |
| Term of office | 6 years, or age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Comparable State PSC term | 5 years, or age 62, whichever is earlier |
| Resignation | Member may resign by writing to the President |
| Removal | By President, under Article 317, after Supreme Court inquiry into misbehaviour |
| Acting Chairman provision | President may appoint a member to act as Chairman during a vacancy |
3. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of election to
(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Office of President and Vice President
(D) All the above
Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India is responsible for the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, the Legislature of every State, and the offices of President and Vice-President of India — covering all three categories listed in the question.
Election Commission’s Electoral Responsibility:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 324 |
| Elections covered | Parliament, State Legislatures, offices of President and Vice-President |
| Not covered | Panchayat and Municipality elections (handled by separate State Election Commissions) |
4. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the (Article 317)
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chairman of UPSC
(C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister on recommendation of Supreme Court
Answer: (C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
Explanation: Under Article 317 of the Constitution, a member of the Union Public Service Commission (or a State Public Service Commission) can be removed from office by the President only on grounds of misbehaviour, after the Supreme Court, on a reference made by the President, has held an inquiry and reported that the member ought to be removed.
Removal of UPSC Member:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 317 |
| Removing authority | President of India |
| Mandatory inquiry by | Supreme Court of India (on Presidential reference) |
| Grounds for removal | Misbehaviour, insolvency, paid employment outside duties, infirmity of mind/body |
| Suspension pending inquiry | President may suspend the member during inquiry |
| Applicable to | Both UPSC and State PSC members |
| Similar protection given to | Supreme Court/High Court Judges (Article 124(4)) |
5. The Chief Election Commissioner is
(A) appointed by Home Minister
(B) appointed by Prime Minister
(C) elected by Parliament
(D) appointed by the President
Answer: (D) appointed by the President
Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India. Historically this appointment was made on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment…) Act, 2023 has since introduced a selection committee process to recommend names to the President.
Chief Election Commissioner Appointment:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Relevant Article | Article 324(2) |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Tenure | 6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Removal | Same manner as a Supreme Court Judge (Article 324(5)) |
| Recent legal reform | CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023 — Selection Committee: PM, LoP, one Union Cabinet Minister |
| Landmark case | Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) |
| First CEC | Sukumar Sen (1950) |
6. Under Article 321 of the Constitution , the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Parliament
(C) Chairman of the Commission
(D) President
Answer: (B) Parliament
Explanation: Under Article 321 of the Constitution, Parliament is empowered to make provisions extending the functions of the Union Public Service Commission by law, allowing the Commission to serve the needs of any local authority, corporation, or other body established by law, or of any public institution, in addition to its functions specified under Article 320.
Article 321:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Extension of functions of Public Service Commissions |
| Extending authority (Union) | Parliament, by law |
| Extending authority (State) | State Legislature, by law |
| Purpose | To serve needs of local authorities, corporations, public institutions, etc. |
| Nature | Enabling provision to widen the Commission’s advisory/consultative role |
7. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 178
(D) Article 238
Answer: (B) Article 148
Explanation: Article 148 of the Constitution provides for the appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India by the President of India, by warrant under his hand and seal. The CAG holds office for a term of six years or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, and can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court Judge.
Article 148:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Appointment of the CAG |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Term of office | 6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Removal | Same manner and grounds as a Supreme Court Judge (proved misbehaviour/incapacity) |
| Oath | Taken before the President or a person appointed by him |
8. How many languages are present in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
Answer: (D) 22
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution currently lists 22 official languages recognised by the Union of India. Originally, at the time of the Constitution’s adoption in 1950, it contained only 14 languages; over time, further languages were added through various constitutional amendments — including Sindhi (21st Amendment, 1967), Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (71st Amendment, 1992), and Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali (92nd Amendment, 2003) — bringing the total to 22.
Eighth Schedule:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Current number of languages | 22 |
| Original number (1950) | 14 |
| Languages added later | Sindhi (1967); Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (1992); Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali (2003) |
| Amendments involved | 21st Amendment (1967), 71st Amendment (1992), 92nd Amendment (2003) |
| Purpose | Recognised languages for development, and for translation of official documents |
WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2017
1. UPSC submits its Annual Report on its work to
(A) The Parliament
(B) The Union Home Minister
(C) The President
(D) The Chief Justice of India
Answer: (C) The President
Explanation: Under Article 323(1) of the Constitution, the Union Public Service Commission is required to present its annual report on the work done by it to the President of India, who then lays it before both Houses of Parliament along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on its recommendations, including reasons for non-acceptance where applicable.
UPSC Annual Report:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Relevant Article | Article 323(1) |
| Report submitted to | President of India |
| Subsequent action | President lays report before Parliament with action-taken memorandum |
| Frequency | Annually |
| State PSC equivalent | Reports to the Governor (Article 323(2)) |
| Governing Part | Part XIV — Services under the Union and the States |
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is
(A) Elected by Parliament
(B) Appointed by Home Minister
(C) Appointed by Prime Minister
(D) Appointed by President
Answer: (D) Appointed by President
Explanation: Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India. Historically this was done on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, though the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment…) Act, 2023 has since introduced a selection committee mechanism to recommend names to the President.
Chief Election Commissioner Appointment:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Relevant Article | Article 324(2) |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Tenure | 6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Removal | Same manner as a Supreme Court Judge (Article 324(5)) |
| Recent legal reform | CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023 — Selection Committee: PM, LoP, one Union Cabinet Minister |
| Landmark case | Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) |
| First CEC | Sukumar Sen (1950) |
3. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 7 years
Answer: (C) 5 years
Explanation: Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India every five years, or earlier if considered necessary, primarily to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid to the States.
Finance Commission:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Constituting Article | Article 280 |
| Frequency | Every 5 years, or earlier if necessary |
| Composition | Chairman + 4 other members |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| First Finance Commission | 1951, chaired by K. C. Neogy |
| Recent Finance Commission | 15th FC, chaired by N. K. Singh (2021-26 award period) |
| Main function | Distribution of tax proceeds; grants-in-aid principles |
4. The Vote value of the voters in the President Election in India are based on the population count of the respective State for the year,
(A) 2010
(B) 1969
(C) 1971
(D) 1991
Answer: (C) 1971
Explanation: Under Article 55 of the Constitution, the value of votes of MLAs in the election of the President of India is calculated using the population figures of each state as per the 1971 Census. This freeze on the population base was maintained through subsequent constitutional amendments (42nd and 84th Amendments) to avoid penalising states that successfully controlled population growth, and continues to apply even today for the purpose of this calculation.
Vote Value in Presidential Election:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 55 |
| Census year used | 1971 |
| Reason for freeze | To not penalise states with better population control; frozen by 42nd Amendment (1976) and extended by 84th Amendment (2001), 87th Amendment (2003) |
| MLA vote value formula | (Total population of State ÷ Total number of elected MLAs) ÷ 1000 |
| MP vote value formula | Total value of votes of all MLAs of all states ÷ Total number of elected MPs (Lok Sabha + Rajya Sabha… actually only elected MPs of both Houses) |
| Electoral College for President | Elected members of both Houses of Parliament + elected members of State (and UT) Legislative Assemblies |
| Related case | In re: Presidential Poll (1974) |
5. Article 340 of the Constitution of India deals with
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Backward Classes Commission
(D) UPSC
Answer: (C) Backward Classes Commission
Explanation: Article 340 of the Constitution deals with the appointment of a Commission by the President to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within India, the difficulties they face, and to recommend steps for their advancement, including grants-in-aid. This provision was used to set up both the Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) and the Mandal Commission (1979).
Article 340:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Appointment of Commission to investigate backward classes |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Purpose | Investigate conditions of socially/educationally backward classes; recommend measures |
| First Commission under this Article | Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) |
| Second Commission under this Article | Mandal Commission (1979), chaired by B. P. Mandal |
6. The UPSC has to serve only
(A) Selected States
(B) Entire Nation
(C) Union Territories
(D) Depends on President’s will
Answer: (B) Entire Nation
Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission, being the central recruiting and advisory body established under Article 315 of the Constitution, serves the entire nation — it conducts recruitment and advises the Union Government on civil services matters across India, and may also assist State Governments upon request (subject to Presidential approval), unlike a State Public Service Commission which serves only its respective state.
UPSC’s Jurisdiction:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 315 |
| Scope of service | Entire nation (Union-level recruitment and advisory functions) |
| Can also assist | State Governments, if requested and approved by the President (Article 315(4)) |
| Main functions | Recruitment to All-India Services, Central Civil Services, disciplinary matters (Article 320) |
| Contrast | State PSC serves only its respective state (Article 316) |
| Recruitment exam | Civil Services Examination, Engineering Services Exam, etc. |
7. National Development Council is ( apex & advisory body )
(A) Political body
(B) Non-political body
(C) Statutory body
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation: The National Development Council (established on August 6, 1952) is neither a constitutional body (not mentioned in the Constitution) nor a statutory body. It was created purely via an executive resolution of the Government of India on the recommendation of the First Planning Commission. Since it is an administrative, advisory, and deliberative executive body rather than a political entity or a body created by an Act of Parliament, none of the specific options (A, B, or C) accurately define its legal nature.
- It acts as the apex advisory body to bring a federal perspective to national development plans and secure the cooperation of all states in implementing national policies.
- It is chaired by the Prime Minister and comprises Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States, representatives/administrators of Union Territories, and members of the NITI Aayog (erstwhile Planning Commission).
8. The Chairman of the Public Service Commission of a State can be removed from his office by
(A) The President of India
(B) The Governor of the State
(C) The Legislative Council of the State
(D) The High Court of the State
Answer: (A) The President of India
Explanation: Under Article 317 of the Constitution of India, the Chairman and any other member of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) can only be removed from office by order of the President of India. The President can remove the Chairman on the ground of misbehaviour only after the Supreme Court conducts an inquiry (upon a reference made by the President) and reports that the person ought to be removed. While the Governor holds the power to appoint the SPSC Chairman, they can only suspend them from office pending the final removal investigation by the Supreme Court; they do not possess the constitutional authority to permanently remove them.
9. Under Article 321 of the Constitution of India the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Chairman of the Commission
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: (B) Parliament
Explanation: Under Article 321 of the Constitution, Parliament is empowered to make provisions extending the functions of the Union Public Service Commission by law, allowing it to serve the needs of local authorities, corporations, or other bodies established by law, or public institutions, in addition to its core functions under Article 320.
Article 321:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Extension of functions of Public Service Commissions |
| Extending authority (Union) | Parliament, by law |
| Extending authority (State) | State Legislature, by law |
| Purpose | To serve needs of local authorities, corporations, public institutions, etc. |
| Nature | Enabling provision to widen the Commission’s advisory/consultative role |
WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2016
1. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes was created by – (2003)
(A) 87th Amendment
(B) 88th Amendment
(C) 89th Amendment
(D) 92th Amendment
Answer: (C) 89th Amendment
Explanation: The Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003 created a separate National Commission for Scheduled Castes by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, thereby bifurcating the earlier combined National Commission for SCs and STs into two independent constitutional bodies.
89th Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 2003 |
| Effect | Bifurcated combined SC/ST Commission into two separate bodies |
| Article for NCSC | Article 338 |
| Article inserted for NCST | Article 338A |
| Reason | Focused, independent attention to distinct concerns of SCs and STs |
| Composition | Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, 3 other Members (each Commission) |
| Related later amendment | 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 — created National Commission for Backward Classes (Article 338B) |
| Related earlier provision | Original combined Commission functioned under Article 338 alone before 2003 |
2. Which amendment authorised the govt. to fill the backlog of vacancies for the Scheduled Castes (15%) and Scheduled Tribes (7.5%) as these two vacancies are to be treated as a separate class of vacancies to be filled in any succeeding year or years ? (Article 16(4B) – 2000)
(A) 81st
(B) 85th
(C) 86th
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) 81st
Explanation: The 81st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2000 inserted clause (4B) into Article 16 of the Indian Constitution. This amendment authorized the government to treat unfilled backlog vacancies reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) as a separate class of vacancies to be filled up in the succeeding year or years. Crucially, it determined that these backlog vacancies would not be counted when calculating the 50% ceiling limit on the total number of reservations for that current year.
- 86th Amendment Act (2002): Made education a Fundamental Right by inserting Article 21A, providing free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years.
- 85th Amendment Act (2001): Provided for consequential seniority in the case of promotion by virtue of rule of reservation for government servants belonging to the SCs and STs.
3. Which amendment empowered the state to make Provisions for reservation in promotion in government jobs in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ? (1995)
(A) 74th Amendment
(B) 75th Amendment
(C) 77th Amendment
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C) 77th Amendment
Explanation: The Constitution (77th Amendment) Act, 1995 inserted Clause (4A) into Article 16, empowering the State to make provisions for reservation in matters of promotion in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in public employment, if the State considers that these communities are not adequately represented in government services. This was enacted in response to the Supreme Court’s ruling in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), which had held that reservation in promotions was not permissible.
77th Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 1995 |
| Article inserted | Article 16(4A) |
| Purpose | Enables reservation in promotion for SCs/STs |
| Context | Response to Indra Sawhney judgment (1992), which barred promotion reservation |
| Landmark case (later) | M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006) — laid down conditions for applying Art 16(4A) |
4. Which one of the following amendments was concerned with the extension of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes ?
(A) 8th Amendment
(B) 23rd Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was originally provided for a limited period under the Constitution, and this period of reservation has been periodically extended through successive constitutional amendments — including the 8th Amendment (1959), 23rd Amendment (1969), 45th Amendment (1980), and several later ones (62nd, 79th, 95th, and 104th Amendments) — each extending the reservation by ten more years, until the 104th Amendment Act, 2019 extended it further while simultaneously ending reservation for Anglo-Indians.
Extension of SC/ST Reservation in Legislatures:
| Amendment | Year | Effect |
|---|---|---|
| 8th Amendment | 1959 | First extension of reservation (originally for 10 years from 1950) |
| 23rd Amendment | 1969 | Further extension |
| 45th Amendment | 1980 | Further extension |
| 62nd Amendment | 1989 | Further extension (also ended nomination of Anglo-Indians to State Assemblies in some UTs — details vary) |
| 79th Amendment | 1999 | Further extension |
| 95th Amendment | 2009 | Further extension till 2020 |
| 104th Amendment | 2019 | Extended SC/ST reservation for 10 more years; ended Anglo-Indian reservation |
5. Which one of the following amendment of the Constitution did away with the privileges and concessions enjoyed by the I.C.S. Officers ? (1972)
(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 28th Amendment
(C) 29th Amendment
(D) 42th Amendment
Answer: (B) 28th Amendment
Explanation: The 28th Amendment Act, 1972 eliminated the special service conditions, privileges, and concessions that were guaranteed to the colonial-era Indian Civil Service (I.C.S.) officers. It completely repealed Article 314, which originally protected the pre-independence service contracts and retirement terms of these crown-appointed officers. It inserted Article 312A, empowering Parliament to vary or revoke the remuneration, pension, and disciplinary conditions of service for these officers either prospectively or retrospectively.
- 42nd Amendment Act (1976): Widely known as the “Mini-Constitution,” it introduced extensive changes across the entire framework, including adding the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” to the Preamble and enlisting the Fundamental Duties.
- 24th Amendment Act (1971): Affirmed the power of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, and made it compulsory for the President to give assent to Constitutional Amendment Bills.
- 29th Amendment Act (1972): Placed certain Kerala land reform amendment acts within the protective purview of the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.
6. Which amendment accorded statutory status to the Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ?
(A) 64th
(B) 65th (1990)
(C) 68th
(D) 70th
Answer: (B) 65th (1990)
Explanation: The Constitution (65th Amendment) Act, 1990 accorded statutory status to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes by inserting Article 338, replacing the earlier arrangement of a Special Officer/Commissioner for SCs and STs. This body was later made a fully constitutional commission through subsequent amendments, and further bifurcated into two separate commissions by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003.
65th Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 1990 |
| Effect | Replaced Special Officer for SCs/STs with a National Commission for SCs and STs |
| Article inserted/amended | Article 338 |
| Prior arrangement | Special Officer under Article 338 (pre-1990), as originally enacted in 1950 |
| Later development | 89th Amendment Act, 2003 — bifurcated into separate NCSC (Art. 338) and NCST (Art. 338A) |
| Related body | National Commission for Backward Classes — added later via 102nd Amendment, 2018 (Art. 338B) |
7. Which among the following committees recommended to set up an “ Equal Opportunity Commission ” ? (2014)
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Sachar Committee
(C) Bhagawati Committee
(D) Chawla Committee
Answer: (B) Sachar Committee
Explanation: The Sachar Committee (2005-06), headed by Justice Rajinder Sachar, was constituted to study the social, economic, and educational status of the Muslim community in India. Among its various recommendations to address underrepresentation and discrimination, it recommended the establishment of an Equal Opportunity Commission to look into grievances of deprived groups, including religious and linguistic minorities.
Sachar Committee:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Constituted | 2005 |
| Chairman | Justice Rajinder Sachar |
| Report submitted | 2006 |
| Purpose | Study social, economic and educational status of Muslims in India |
| Key recommendation cited here | Establishment of an Equal Opportunity Commission |
| Other recommendations | Delimitation of constituencies to not adversely affect minority representation; credit and employment measures |
| Related body (never formally created) | Equal Opportunity Commission — recommendation not implemented as proposed |
| Related committee | Ranganath Misra Commission (2007) — also examined minority welfare, recommended 15% reservation for minorities |
8. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution lays down the establishment of the –
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) River waters Tribunal
(D) Finance Commission
Answer: (D) Finance Commission
Explanation: Article 280 of the Constitution lays down the provision for the establishment of the Finance Commission, a body constituted by the President every five years (or earlier, if necessary) to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, and the principles governing grants-in-aid to States from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Article 280:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Constitution of Finance Commission |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Frequency | Every 5 years, or earlier if necessary |
| Composition | Chairman + 4 other members |
| Main functions | Tax revenue distribution; grants-in-aid principles; augmenting State/local body funds |
| Related but distinct body | Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) — extra-constitutional body, not under Art. 280 |
9. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can function as members up to the age of —
(A) 60 years
(B) 58 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
Answer: (D) 65 years
Explanation: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, a member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a term of six years from the date of appointment, or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever event occurs earlier — setting the upper age limit at 65 years for UPSC members.
UPSC Members — Age/Tenure Limits:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 316 |
| Age limit (UPSC) | 65 years |
| Term of office | 6 years, or age 65, whichever is earlier |
| Age limit (State PSC) | 62 years |
| Term of office (State PSC) | 5 years, or age 62, whichever is earlier |
| Removal | By President under Article 317, after Supreme Court inquiry |
WBCS Main Constitutional & Other Bodies Question Paper – 2015
1. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chairman of UPSC
(C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister on recommendation of Supreme court
Answer: (C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
Explanation: Under Article 317 of the Constitution, a member of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed from office by the President only on grounds of misbehaviour, and only after the Supreme Court, on a reference made by the President, has held an inquiry and reported that the member ought to be removed on such grounds.
Removal of UPSC Member:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 317 |
| Removing authority | President of India |
| Mandatory inquiry by | Supreme Court of India (on Presidential reference) |
| Grounds for removal | Misbehaviour, insolvency, paid employment outside duties, infirmity of mind/body |
| Suspension pending inquiry | President may suspend the member during inquiry |
| Applicable to | Both UPSC and State PSC members |
| Similar protection given to | Supreme Court/High Court Judges (Article 124(4)) |
2. The Composition of UPSC
(A) Has been laid down in the Constitution
(B) Is determined by Parliament
(C) Is determined by President
(D) Is determined by Home Ministry
Answer: (C) Is determined by President
Explanation: As per Article 318 of the Constitution of India, the Constitution does not specify the exact strength of the Commission. It leaves the power to determine the precise number of members entirely to the discretion of the President.
Based on regulations established by the President, the UPSC traditionally consists of a Chairman and 10 other members.
The President is also constitutionally authorised to determine the salary, allowances, and other conditions of service for the Chairman and members.
3. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that it should by the endeavor of every State and every local authority to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to linguistic minority groups :
(A) Article 349
(B) Article 350
(C) Art icle 350-A
(D) Article 351
Answer: (C) Article 350-A
Explanation: Article 350-A of the Constitution directs that it shall be the endeavour of every State, and of every local authority within the State, to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups, and empowers the President to issue directions to any State as considered necessary to secure this provision.
Article 350-A:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Instruction in mother tongue at primary stage for linguistic minorities |
| Duty imposed on | Every State and every local authority within the State |
| Inserted by | 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 |
| Nature of provision | Directive/endeavour clause, not strictly enforceable as a Fundamental Right |
4. The first Election Commissioner of India was : (1950)
(A) Sukumar Sen
(B) Dr. Nagendra Singh
(C) S.P. Sen Verma
(D) K.V.K. Sundaram
Answer: (A) Sukumar Sen
Explanation: Sukumar Sen was the first Election Commissioner (Chief Election Commissioner) of India, appointed in 1950. He successfully organised and conducted India’s first general elections held in 1951-52, a massive logistical achievement given the scale, diversity, and largely illiterate electorate of the newly independent nation.
First Election Commissioner of India:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Name | Sukumar Sen |
| Year appointed | 1950 |
| Tenure | 21 March 1950 – 19 December 1958 |
| Key achievement | Conducted India’s first general elections (1951-52) |
| Background | Indian Civil Service (ICS) officer, former Chief Secretary of West Bengal |
| Later role | Also supervised Sudan’s first general elections after retirement |
| Successor | K. V. K. Sundaram |
| Related fact | First woman CEC — V. S. Ramadevi (1990) |
5. The Constitution of India provides that “it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language”. It is found in
(A) Article 49
(B) Article 149
(C) Art icle 351
(D) Article 355
Answer: (C) Article 351
Explanation: Article 351 of the Constitution places a duty on the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all elements of the composite culture of India, and to secure its enrichment by assimilating forms, style and expressions used in Hindustani and other Indian languages, drawing primarily on Sanskrit for its vocabulary.
Article 351:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Directive for development of the Hindi language |
| Duty imposed on | The Union (Union Government) |
| Objective | Promote Hindi as a medium of expression for India’s composite culture |
| Primary source for vocabulary | Sanskrit, and secondarily other languages in the Eighth Schedule |
| Part of Constitution | Part XVII — Official Language |
6. English is the official language of which one of the following States ? ( Arunachal Pradesh & Nagaland )
(A) Nagaland
(B) Assam
(C) Manipur
(D) Tripura
Answer: (A) Nagaland
Explanation: English is the official language of the State of Nagaland, formally adopted under the Nagaland Official Language Act, 1967, making it one of the few Indian states where English (rather than a regional Indian language) serves as the sole official language for administrative and legislative purposes.
English as Official Language:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| State | Nagaland |
| Governing law | Nagaland Official Language Act, 1967 |
| Related state | Arunachal Pradesh — also uses English as sole official language (Assembly proceedings, etc.) |
| Related state | Meghalaya — English is a de facto/associate official language alongside Khasi/Garo |
| Assam’s official language | Assamese (with Bengali as additional official language in some districts, e.g. Barak Valley) |
| Manipur’s official language | Meitei/Manipuri |
| Tripura’s official language | Bengali and Kokborok |
| Significance | Reflects linguistic diversity of Northeast India, absence of a single dominant regional language in these states |
7. Point out the correct statement :
1. Originally the Constitution of India had 14 languages in the 8th schedule
2. Currently there are 22 languages in the Constitution of India
(A) 1 correct
(B) 2 not correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
Explanation: Originally, at the time the Constitution came into force in 1950, the Eighth Schedule contained 14 languages. Over subsequent decades, through various constitutional amendments (21st, 71st, and 92nd Amendments), additional languages were added, bringing the current total to 22 languages — making both statements in the question factually correct.
Eighth Schedule — Language Additions Over Time:
| Stage | Number of Languages | Details |
|---|---|---|
| Original (1950) | 14 | Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Marathi, Malayalam, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu |
| 21st Amendment (1967) | +1 (Sindhi) | Total: 15 |
| 71st Amendment (1992) | +3 (Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali) | Total: 18 |
| 92nd Amendment (2003) | +4 (Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali) | Total: 22 |
| Current total | 22 | As of present |
8. Which of the following funds/authorities/ bodies can be audited by the CAG ?
1. Consolidated Funds of Union Government, State, U.Ts having legislative Assemblies
2. Contingency Funds of India
3. Public Accounts of States
4. Receipts and expenditure of PPP (Public Private Partnership)
(A) 1, 2, 3 only
(B) 1, 2 only
(C) 1, 3 only
(D) All
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 only
Explanation: Under Article 149 read with the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, the Comptroller and Auditor General audits the Consolidated Funds of the Union, States, and Union Territories having legislative assemblies, as well as the Contingency Funds of India and the Public Accounts of States. However, the CAG does not have a general mandate to audit Public-Private Partnership (PPP) receipts and expenditures unless specifically brought within its audit jurisdiction, so option 4 is not automatically included as a routine function.
CAG’s Audit Jurisdiction:
| Item | Covered by CAG? |
|---|---|
| Consolidated Funds (Union, States, UTs with legislature) | Yes |
| Contingency Fund of India | Yes |
| Public Accounts of States | Yes |
| Receipts/expenditure of PPPs | Not as a routine/general mandate |
| Governing Article | Article 149 |
| Governing Act | CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971 |
| Bodies also auditable | Government companies, corporations (as per specific statutes), bodies substantially financed by government |
9. What is the criteria for a regional party to be recognised as a national party ?
(A) Must be recognised in at least 4 states
(B) Must be recognised in at least 3 states
(C) To get 1/10th seats in the Lok Sabha
(D) Must get 1/10th seats in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Answer: (A) Must be recognised in at least 4 states
Explanation: According to the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, a regional or registered political party can elevate to a National Party if it fulfills any one of the following three conditions:
- State Party Status (Option A): The party achieves official recognition as a “State Party” in at least four distinct states. (For instance, the Aam Aadmi Party successfully attained national status by meeting this exact requirement).
- Lok Sabha Seats: It wins a minimum of 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha (which equals 11 seats), and these elected members must hail from at least three different states.
- Vote Share + Seats: It secures at least 6% of the total valid votes in four or more states during a Lok Sabha or State Assembly election, and additionally wins at least 4 Lok Sabha seats from any state(s).
- Options (C) & (D): The fractional requirement of 1/10th seats applies to defining the Quorum required to conduct a parliamentary session or determining the official Leader of the Opposition, rather than defining ECI party recognition rules.
- Option (B): Being recognized in 3 states is insufficient; the legal threshold explicitly demands 4 states.
10. Choose the incorrect statement among the following :
(A) The National Commission for S.C. is a 6 member body
(B) National Commission for S.C. is a constitutional body established with a view to provide safe-guards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes.
(C) The first commission came into being on Aug, 1978
(D) The Commission enquires into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes
Answer: (A) The National Commission for S.C. is a 6 member body
Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes, as per Article 338 of the Constitution, consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other Members — a total of five members, not six. This makes statement (A) the incorrect one among the options, since the Commission functioned first as a non-statutory body from 1978, then became statutory in 1990, and finally became a full constitutional body (in its present SC-specific form) after the 89th Amendment, 2003.
National Commission for Scheduled Castes:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Composition | Chairperson + Vice-Chairperson + 3 other Members (5 total) |
| Governing Article | Article 338 |
| First Commission constituted | August 1978 (non-statutory, by Presidential Order) |
| Statutory status given | 65th Amendment Act, 1990 |
| Made SC-specific | 89th Amendment Act, 2003 (STs given separate Commission under Art. 338A) |
| Functions | Inquire into specific complaints re: deprivation of SC rights/safeguards; advise on SC welfare planning |
| Powers | Civil court powers while investigating complaints |
| Reporting | Annual report to President, laid before Parliament |
11. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) consider the following statements :
1. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become a Chairman of NHRC
2. The Chairman can be re-appointed
Which of the statements above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: Following the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, the eligibility criteria for the post of NHRC Chairperson was expanded. Now, either a retired Chief Justice of India OR a retired Judge of the Supreme Court is eligible to become the Chairperson. The word “Only” makes this statement false. The 2019 Amendment removed the earlier restriction on the maximum number of terms, making both the Chairperson and members eligible for re-appointment for a period of 3 years, subject to the maximum upper age limit of 70 years.
12. The jurisdiction of the Union Public Service Commission can be extended by :
(A) Government by a resolution
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) (B) or (C) depending on the type of extension
Answer: (C) Parliament
Explanation: Under Article 321 of the Indian Constitution, the power to extend the functions and jurisdiction of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is vested exclusively in Parliament. This expansion cannot be achieved through an executive resolution or presidential order alone; it requires an formal act passed by Parliament. Through this mechanism, Parliament can place any public service, local authority, corporate body, or public institution under the advisory or recruitment purview of the UPSC.
13. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is dealt within :
(A) Part XII of Constitution of India
(B) Part XIII of Constitution of India
(C) Part XIV of Constitution of India
(D) Part XVI of Constitution of India
Answer: (D) Part XVI of Constitution of India
Explanation: Part XVI of the Constitution of India spans Articles 330 to 342B and is titled “Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes”. It specifically handles the reservation of seats and representation for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in political structures. For instance:
- Article 330: Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha.
- Article 332: Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the State Legislative Assemblies.
- Article 335: Acknowledges the claims of SCs and STs to services and posts under the Union or States.
- Part XIV: Covers Articles 308 to 323, dealing with Services Under the Union and the States (including the UPSC and All India Services)
- Part XII : Covers Articles 264 to 300A, dealing with Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits (including GST rules and the Right to Property).
- Part XIII : Covers Articles 301 to 307, dealing with Trade, Commerce, and Intercourse within the territory of India.
14. The Constitution of India has defined which of the following ?
1. Scheduled Caste
2. Scheduled Tribe
3. Anglo Indians
Select the correct answer
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The Constitution of India provides definitions for Scheduled Castes (Article 366(24)) and Scheduled Tribes (Article 366(25)), and also contains specific provisions relating to the Anglo-Indian community (Article 366(2)), defining who qualifies as an Anglo-Indian for constitutional purposes. Thus, all three groups — Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Anglo-Indians — are explicitly defined in the Constitution.
Constitutional Definitions:
| Category | Defining Article |
|---|---|
| Scheduled Castes | Article 366(24) |
| Scheduled Tribes | Article 366(25) |
| Anglo-Indian | Article 366(2) |
| Notification mechanism (SC/ST) | Article 341 (SC) and Article 342 (ST) — President specifies castes/tribes by public notification |
| Significance | Backward Classes (OBCs) are notably NOT constitutionally “defined” in the same explicit manner as SC/ST/Anglo-Indian |
15. Which of the following articles correctly matched ?
(A) Election Commission – Art 324
(B) Finance Commission – Art 200
(C) Attorney General – Art 176
(D) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes – Art 320
Answer: (A) Election Commission – Art 324
Explanation: Among the given options, only the pairing of the Election Commission with Article 324 is correctly matched — Article 324 vests the Election Commission with superintendence, direction and control of elections. The other pairings are incorrect: the Finance Commission is actually established under Article 280 (not 200), the Attorney General for India is provided for under Article 76 (not 176), and the National Commission for SCs/STs is covered under Articles 338/338A (not 320, which deals with functions of Public Service Commissions).
Correct Article Matches:
| Body | Correct Article |
|---|---|
| Election Commission | Article 324 |
| Finance Commission | Article 280 |
| Attorney General for India | Article 76 |
| National Commission for SCs | Article 338 |
| National Commission for STs | Article 338A |
| Comptroller and Auditor General | Article 148 |
| Union Public Service Commission | Article 315 (establishment), Article 320 (functions) |
16. Who was the first woman to become a Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
(A) V. S. Ramadevi
(B) G. D. Das
(C) S. K. Bedi
(D) R. M. Nikam
Answer: (A) V. S. Ramadevi
Explanation: V. S. Ramadevi became the first woman to hold the office of Chief Election Commissioner of India, serving briefly in 1990 (26 November 1990 to 11 December 1990). Prior to this role, she had also served as Governor of several Indian states, making her one of the few individuals to hold both a gubernatorial post and the position of CEC.
First Woman Chief Election Commissioner:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Name | V. S. Ramadevi |
| Tenure as CEC | 26 November 1990 – 11 December 1990 |
| Significance | First woman to hold the post of Chief Election Commissioner |
| Other roles held | Governor of Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh |
| Predecessor as CEC | R. V. S. Peri Sastri |
| Successor as CEC | T. N. Seshan |
17. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President , to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of the backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures ?
(A) Article 340
(B) Article 342
(C) Article 344
(D) Article 339
Answer: (A) Article 340
Explanation: Under Article 340 of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to appoint a commission consisting of such persons as he thinks fit to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within the territory of India. The commission is mandated to investigate the difficulties under which they labour and to make recommendations as to the steps that should be taken by the Union or any State to remove such difficulties and improve their condition. This is the precise article under which famous commissions like the Kaka Kalelkar Commission (First Backward Classes Commission, 1953) and the Mandal Commission (Second Backward Classes Commission, 1979) were appointed.
Article 340:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Subject | Appointment of Commission to investigate backward classes |
| Appointing authority | President of India |
| Purpose | Investigate conditions of socially/educationally backward classes; recommend measures |
| First Commission | Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) |
| Second Commission | Mandal Commission (1979) |
18. Though all government servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor (as the case may be), two procedural safe-guards are provided for the security of tenure of ‘civil servants’ as distinguished from military personnel by the Constitution of India –
1. A civil servant shall not be dismissed or removed by any authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed
2. No dismissal, removal or reduction in rank shall be ordered against a civil servant unless he has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of the charges brought against him
(A) 1 correct
(B) 2 correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 correct
(D) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 correct
Explanation: Article 311 of the Constitution provides two key procedural safeguards for civil servants (as distinguished from military personnel, who fall under Article 310’s pleasure doctrine without these protections). First, a civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed them. Second, no civil servant can be dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank without being given a reasonable opportunity of being heard regarding the charges against them — both statements accurately reflect these safeguards.
Article 311 — Safeguards for Civil Servants:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Governing Article | Article 311 |
| Safeguard 1 | Cannot be dismissed/removed by authority subordinate to the appointing authority |
| Safeguard 2 | Reasonable opportunity of being heard before dismissal/removal/reduction in rank |
| Applies to | Civil servants of the Union and States |
| Does not apply to | Members of Defence/Military services |
| Exceptions to Article 311(2) hearing requirement | Conviction on criminal charge; impracticability of inquiry; security of State grounds |
| Landmark case | Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985) — upheld exceptions to Art. 311(2) |
19. Point out what is not the primary function of the Finance Commission in India
(A) Prepare estimates of consolidated fund of India
(B) Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States
(C) Determine factors governing grants-in-Aid to the States
(D) Recommend to the President the measures needed to augment the consolidated Fund of a State
Answer: (A) Prepare estimates of consolidated fund of India
Explanation: The primary functions of the Finance Commission under Article 280 include recommending the distribution of tax proceeds between the Centre and States, determining principles for grants-in-aid, and recommending measures to augment a State’s Consolidated Fund to supplement Panchayat/Municipality resources. However, preparing “estimates” of the Consolidated Fund of India is not a Finance Commission function at all — this falls under the Union Budget preparation process handled by the Ministry of Finance, making it the correct answer as the function NOT performed by the Finance Commission.
Finance Commission’s Functions:
| Function | Performed by Finance Commission? |
|---|---|
| Distribution of net tax proceeds between Centre and States | Yes |
| Principles governing grants-in-aid to States | Yes |
| Measures to augment a State’s Consolidated Fund (to supplement Panchayat/Municipality resources) | Yes |
| Preparing estimates of the Consolidated Fund of India | No — this is a Union Budget/Finance Ministry function |
| Governing Article | Article 280 |
| Related body for estimates/budget | Ministry of Finance, via the Union Budget |
20. Which Constitutional Amendment Act , provided reservation in admissions in private un-aided educational institutions for students belong to Scheduled Caste/Tribes and other Backward Classes ? (2006)
(A) 92nd Amendment Act
(B) 93rd Amendment Act
(C) 94th Amendment Act
(D) 95th Amendment Act
Answer: (B) 93rd Amendment Act
Explanation: The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2006 inserted Clause (5) into Article 15, empowering the State to make special provisions, including reservation, for socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in admissions to educational institutions — including private unaided institutions — except minority educational institutions protected under Article 30(1).
93rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 2006 (enacted; came from 2005 Bill) |
| Article amended | Article 15 (inserted Clause 5) |
| Effect | Enables reservation for SEBC/SC/ST in admissions to all educational institutions, including private unaided |
| Exclusion | Minority educational institutions under Article 30(1) |
| Follow-up legislation | Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006 |
| Landmark case | Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (2008) — upheld amendment, excluded creamy layer |
21. Choose the correct statement/statements :
1. Right to vote is not a Fundamental Right but a Constitutional one
2. Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the right to vote
(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer: (C) Both
Explanation: The right to vote in India is not a Fundamental Right but a statutory/constitutional right under Article 326, as held by the Supreme Court in various rulings including People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2003). Additionally, under Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person confined in prison (whether under a sentence or as an undertrial) or in lawful police custody is not entitled to vote, though they may still contest elections in certain circumstances — making both statements correct.
Right to Vote:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Nature of right to vote | Constitutional/statutory right (not a Fundamental Right) |
| Governing Article | Article 326 (universal adult suffrage) |
| Governing statute | Representation of the People Act, 1951, Section 62 |
| Prisoners/undertrials | Disqualified from voting under Section 62(5) of RPA, 1951 |
| Landmark case | PUCL v. Union of India (2003) |
| Exception (contesting) | Prisoners can, in certain cases, contest elections (subject to other disqualifications) |
| Related case | Anukul Chandra Pradhan v. Union of India (1997) — upheld voting bar on prisoners |
22. The voting age in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the
(A) 61st Amendment Act
(B) 63rd Amendment Act
(C) 64th Amendment Act
(D) 69th Amendment Act
Answer: (A) 61st Amendment Act
Explanation: The Constitution (61st Amendment) Act, 1989 reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years, by amending Article 326 of the Constitution. This significantly expanded India’s electorate, particularly among younger citizens, ahead of the 1989 general elections.
61st Constitutional Amendment Act:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Year | 1989 |
| Article amended | Article 326 |
| Change | Voting age reduced from 21 to 18 years |
| Applicable elections | Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies |
| Prime Minister at the time | Rajiv Gandhi |
| Immediate effect | Applied ahead of 1989 Lok Sabha general elections |
| Significance | Major expansion of India’s electorate, especially youth |
23. Within what time should information be provided under RTI in case of life and personal liberty of a person ? (Section 7(1) of Right to Information Act, 2005)
(A) 24 Hrs.
(B) One Week
(C) 48 Hrs.
(D) 30 Days
Answer: (C) 48 Hrs.
Explanation: Under Section 7(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, where information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, the Public Information Officer is required to provide the information within 48 hours of the receipt of the request — a much shorter timeline than the standard 30-day period applicable to ordinary RTI requests.
RTI Act — Response Timelines:
| Type of Request | Time Limit |
|---|---|
| Information concerning life or personal liberty | 48 hours |
| Ordinary RTI request | 30 days from receipt |
| If request transferred to another PIO | 30 days (with 5 additional days added) |
| If involves third-party information | Up to 40 days (30 + 10 days for third-party representation) |
| Governing Section | Section 7(1), RTI Act, 2005 |
| Appellate authority (first appeal) | Within 30 days to designated senior officer |
| Appellate authority (second appeal) | Central/State Information Commission |
| Penalty for delay | Rs. 250/day (max Rs. 25,000) on the PIO, under Section 20 |
24. Right to Information Act came into force in
(A) 12th Oct, 2005
(B) 12th Oct, 2006
(C) 12th Oct, 2007
(D) 12th Oct, 2008
Answer: (A) 12th Oct, 2005
Explanation: The Right to Information Act, 2005 was enacted by Parliament and received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005, but it came into full force on 12 October 2005, giving government departments a 120-day period to prepare for its implementation, including setting up the necessary information disclosure mechanisms and appointing Public Information Officers.
Right to Information Act, 2005:
| Aspect | Detail |
|---|---|
| Passed by Parliament | May 2005 |
| Presidential assent | 15 June 2005 |
| Came into full force | 12 October 2005 |
| Preparation period | 120 days from assent |
| Nodal Ministry | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions |
| Key bodies created | Central Information Commission, State Information Commissions |
| Landmark predecessor | Freedom of Information Act, 2002 (never fully enforced) |
| Significance | Empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities, promoting transparency |
Read more:
- WBCS Main Judiciary & Landmark Cases Questions and Answers
- WBCS Main Centre, State & Local Government Questions and Answers
Source of questions: WBPSC official website
