WBCS Prelims 2024 — Answers with Explanations
Q1. Choose the correct meaning of the word from the alternatives given: Memorabilia refers to
(A) Memorable things
(B) Memories of War
(C) Memories of the past
(D) Memories of objects collected because of their links with people or events
Answer: (D) Memories of objects collected because of their links with people or events
Explanation: “Memorabilia” means objects that are kept or collected specifically because of their historical or personal significance — usually their association with a memorable person, place, or event (e.g., a signed jersey, an old ticket stub, a war medal).
Q2. Supply the missing word in the sentence by choosing the right one from the following options. There is a book shop close ________.
(A) now
(B) up
(C) in
(D) by
Answer: (D) by
Explanation: English has many such fixed prepositional collocations that must simply be learned rather than derived logically. “Close by” is the standard idiomatic phrase meaning nearby or at a short distance — as in “there is a bookshop close by.” “Close now,” “close up,” and “close in” are all real phrases in English but carry entirely different meanings (finishing, zooming in, or converging), so they do not fit the sense of physical proximity required here.
Q3. Which of the options gives the right meaning of the following sentence? He bit off more than he could chew.
(A) He ate more than he could digest.
(B) He took up more work than he could handle.
(C) He tried to explain what he did not understand.
(D) He did not know how much he could endure.
Answer: (B) He took up more work than he could handle.
Explanation: The idiom “to bite off more than one can chew” is a metaphor drawn from eating: if you bite off too large a piece of food, you cannot chew and swallow it properly. Applied to tasks, it means taking on more work, responsibility, or commitment than one can actually handle or complete.
Q4. All the members are requested to ________ to the rules of the Association. Choose the right word to fill in the blank.
(A) abide
(B) comply
(C) conform
(D) concur
Answer: (C) conform
Explanation: Certain verbs in English are fixed to specific prepositions, and getting this pairing right is often tested directly: abide BY (a rule), comply WITH (a request), conform TO (a standard), and concur WITH/IN (an opinion). Since the sentence already supplies the preposition “to” after the blank (“________ to the rules”), only a verb that pairs with “to” fits grammatically — which is “conform.”
Q5. Give one word substitution/meaning of the underlined word. The whole idea is quite preposterous.
(A) improper judgment
(B) debatable
(C) unacceptable
(D) unbelievable or unreasonable
Answer: (D) unbelievable or unreasonable
Explanation: “Preposterous” describes something so contrary to reason, sense, or expectation that it seems absurd or unbelievable — for example, a preposterous excuse or a preposterous claim.
Q6. From the given options choose the word/phrase nearest in meaning to the proverb: ‘Politeness costs little but yields much’
(A) Being polite is desirable.
(B) Politeness is a virtue that pays in long run.
(C) Politeness is powerful.
(D) Politeness can make people repent or win.
Answer: (B) Politeness is a virtue that pays in long run.
Explanation: This English proverb draws a contrast between the small effort required to be polite (a kind word, a smile, a “thank you”) and the large, lasting benefits it can bring in relationships and dealings with others over time. It is therefore best paraphrased as “politeness is a virtue that pays in the long run” — a virtue meaning a positive quality that yields rewards, matching option B.
Q7. Fill in the blank with suitable Conjunction: I want to go to the park ________ the weather is bad.
(A) although
(B) in spite of
(C) when
(D) as
Answer: (A) although
Explanation: The sentence sets up two contrasting ideas: wanting to go to the park, and the weather being bad — normally a reason NOT to go. A conjunction of concession/contrast is needed to join them, and “although” is the standard subordinating conjunction used for exactly this purpose (“I want to go… although the weather is bad”). “In spite of” is a preposition, not a conjunction, so it cannot directly join two full clauses in this form; “when” and “as” indicate time or reason, not contrast, so they do not fit the logic of the sentence.
Q8. Choose from the following options the appropriate passive form of the sentence: Napoleon made the impossible possible.
(A) Possible was made the impossible by Napoleon.
(B) The impossible was made possible by Napoleon.
(C) Napoleon was made the impossible by possible.
(D) The impossible has been made possible by Napoleon.
Answer: (B) The impossible was made possible by Napoleon.
Explanation: When converting an active sentence to the passive voice, the tense of the verb must be preserved. “Napoleon made the impossible possible” is in the simple past tense, so its passive form must also use simple past: “The impossible was made possible by Napoleon.”
Q9. An undertaker is one who
(A) undertakes projects.
(B) takes bribes.
(C) hears confessions in a church.
(D) makes arrangements for funerals.
Answer: (D) makes arrangements for funerals.
Explanation: An “undertaker” is the traditional English term for a person whose profession is to prepare the dead for burial or cremation and to organize funeral ceremonies — essentially what is often called a funeral director today.
Q10. Give one word substitution/meaning of the underlined word. He loved wearing outlandish clothes.
(A) antique
(B) old school/style
(C) wired or offbeat
(D) unavailable
Answer: (C) wired or offbeat
Explanation: “Outlandish” describes something that looks or sounds bizarre, unfamiliar, or wildly unconventional — often used for unusual clothing, behaviour, or ideas that stand out from the norm. In the given options, this is closest to “weird or offbeat” (note: the option as printed contains a typo, “wired,” which is intended to read “weird”).
Q11. Choose the correct word to fill in the gap in the following sentence. Her book is a ________ to her teacher.
(A) debt
(B) complement
(C) compliment
(D) supplement
Answer: (C) compliment
Explanation: A “compliment” is a polite expression of praise, approval, or respect. In the sentence “Her book is a compliment to her teacher,” the meaning is that the book reflects well on the teacher — it is offered as a tribute or a mark of honour to the teacher’s guidance and influence. This is easily confused with the similarly spelled “complement” (something that completes or goes well with another thing) and “supplement” (an addition), but the sense of tribute/praise intended here specifically requires “compliment.”
Q12. From the given options choose the word/phrase nearest in meaning to the proverb: ‘Curiosity killed the cat.’
(A) Excessive curiosity.
(B) The cat should stay within limits.
(C) If people are curious beyond a point, they may invite trouble.
(D) Curiosity beyond any man’s reach can be deadly.
Answer: (C) If people are curious beyond a point, they may invite trouble.
Explanation: The proverb “curiosity killed the cat” is used as a caution against being excessively inquisitive about matters that do not concern you, since such prying can lead to trouble or danger — much like the traditional image of a curious cat getting into mischief. The phrase/option that best paraphrases this cautionary sense is: “If people are curious beyond a point, they may invite trouble.”
Q13. Fill in the modal auxiliaries as required : I ________ swim. [Ability]
(A) should
(B) must
(C) can
(D) don’t
Answer: (C) can
Explanation: Modal auxiliary verbs each carry a specific shade of meaning — ability, obligation, permission, possibility, and so on. Since the bracketed instruction specifies [Ability], the correct choice must express capability to do something, which is precisely the function of “can” (“I can swim” = I am able to swim).
Q14. Fill in the modal auxiliaries as required : ________ you be more careful in the future? [Request]
(A) Could
(B) Should
(C) Must
(D) Have
Answer: (A) Could
Explanation: Modal verbs placed at the very start of a question often signal politeness or a courteous request, rather than a blunt command. “Could you be more careful in the future?” softens what would otherwise be a demand, matching the bracketed cue [Request]. “Should,” “Must,” and “Have” at the start of this question would instead sound like they are questioning obligation or duty (e.g., “Must you…”) rather than making a polite ask, so they do not fit the intended tone.
Q15. The phrase ’round the corner’ is used to indicate something that is
(A) near
(B) departing
(C) hiding
(D) about to fall
Answer: (A) near
Explanation: The idiomatic phrase “round the corner” (also “just around the corner”) is used figuratively to mean that something is very close by in distance, or very soon to happen in time — for instance, “Christmas is just around the corner.”
Q16. Fill in the blank with suitable Conjunction: They are going on a vacation ________ they haven’t decided the destination.
(A) while
(B) though
(C) when
(D) which
Answer: (B) though
Explanation: The two parts of the sentence are in tension: going on vacation, yet not having decided the destination — a classic contrast. “Though” is a conjunction used precisely to introduce this kind of contrast or concession between two clauses, similar to “although.” “While” typically expresses simultaneous time (or sometimes contrast, but less naturally here), “when” expresses time, and “which” is a relative pronoun, not a conjunction joining two independent contrasting ideas — so “though” fits best.
Q17. Choose the right word to fill in the blank in the following sentence. Children should not forget their ________ duty towards parents.
(A) parental
(B) filial
(C) fraternal
(D) ancestral
Answer: (B) filial
Explanation: “Filial” is an adjective that specifically relates to the relationship, duties, or affection that a son or daughter owes to a parent — as in “filial duty” or “filial piety,” a concept emphasized strongly in many cultural and ethical traditions, including Indian family values. “Parental” describes the reverse relationship (a parent’s duty toward a child), “fraternal” relates to brothers, and “ancestral” relates to forebears/heritage — none of which fit the sentence, which is specifically about children’s duty toward their parents.
Q18. A collection of poems or other literary works is known as:
(A) Epilogue
(B) Anthology
(C) Manuscript
(D) Lexicon
Answer: (B) Anthology
Explanation: An “anthology” is a published collection of poems, short stories, plays, or other literary pieces, usually gathered together and selected by an editor or compiler around a common theme, author, or period. This is distinct from an “epilogue” (a concluding section of a single work), a “manuscript” (a handwritten or unpublished original document), or a “lexicon” (a dictionary or vocabulary of a language) — none of which describe a compiled collection of literary works.
Q19. From the given options choose the word/phrase nearest in meaning to the proverb: ‘The early bird catches the worm.’
(A) People with good habits win the race.
(B) At dawn some birds can prey easily.
(C) Being first in the queue makes/creates big opportunities.
(D) The person who takes the earliest opportunity to do something will gain advantage over others.
Answer: (D) The person who takes the earliest opportunity to do something will gain advantage over others.
Explanation: The proverb means that whoever acts first or takes the earliest opportunity gains a distinct advantage over those who delay — much like a bird that wakes early and thus finds the best worms before other birds do. The best paraphrase among the choices is: “The person who takes the earliest opportunity to do something will gain advantage over others,” which captures the general principle rather than the literal bird scenario (options A and B stay too close to the literal images and lose the general life-lesson, while C narrows it unnecessarily to “the queue”).
Q20. Give one word substitution/meaning of the underlined word. The game is afoot.
(A) new case or investigation
(B) final reality
(C) noisy and expressive
(D) continuous
Answer: (A) new case or investigation
Explanation: “The game is afoot” is a well-known idiomatic phrase, famously associated with the fictional detective Sherlock Holmes, meaning that some plan, process, or investigation has begun and is now actively underway. In the context of the question (which frames it in an investigative/detective sense), the best-fitting interpretation among the given options is “new case or investigation.” The phrase does not literally mean noise, continuity, or a final outcome, so the other options do not match its actual idiomatic use.
Q21. Choose the idiom that can be used to express the idea contained in the following sentence: The candidate is sitting late into the night to prepare for the examination.
(A) go haywire
(B) run amo
(C) sit tight
(D) burn the midnight oil
Answer: (D) burn the midnight oil
Explanation: “Burn the midnight oil” is an idiom referring to working or studying late into the night, harking back to a time when oil lamps were used for light after dark. This matches the sentence describing a candidate staying up late to prepare for an exam. The other idioms describe unrelated situations: “go haywire” means to malfunction or go out of control, “run amok” means to behave in a wild, uncontrolled way, and “sit tight” means to wait patiently without acting — none of which describe staying up to study.
Q22. Fill in the blank with suitable Conjunction: I will call you later ________ I am done with my chores.
(A) once
(B) because
(C) as
(D) so
Answer: (A) once
Explanation: “Once” in this context functions as a conjunction meaning “as soon as” or “after,” correctly expressing the sequence of events: the call will happen after the chores are completed. “Because” would introduce a reason rather than a time sequence, “as” typically indicates simultaneous action or reason (and reads awkwardly here), and “so” indicates a result/consequence — none of which fit the intended timing relationship between finishing chores and making the call.
Q23. Choose the correct meaning of the word from the alternatives given: ‘Affliction’
(A) A deadly disease
(B) A state of pain, distress or grief
(C) A fatal order on a convict
(D) Inability to recognize something terrible or painful
Answer: (B) A state of pain, distress or grief
Explanation: “Affliction” refers to a state of pain, suffering, distress, or grief — a general term for hardship of any kind, whether physical, emotional, or circumstantial (e.g., “the affliction of poverty” or “an affliction of the body”). It is not restricted to a specific deadly disease (A), nor does it refer to a legal punishment on a convict (C) or an inability to perceive pain (D); its core meaning is about the experience of suffering itself, broadly defined.
Q24. Give one word substitution/meaning of the underlined word. A humongous building was destroyed by the earthquake. The underlined word means
(A) unsettled emotions
(B) unstable
(C) weak and non-functional
(D) extremely large and huge
Answer: (D) extremely large and huge
Explanation: “Humongous” is an informal English adjective meaning extremely large, huge, or enormous — commonly used in casual speech to emphasize great size (“a humongous meal,” “a humongous building”). It has nothing to do with emotional instability (A, B) or structural weakness (C); its sole meaning relates purely to physical scale.
Q25. Choose the correct meaning of the word from the alternatives given: ‘Underplay’
(A) Intrigue
(B) Conspire
(C) Making more complicated or problematizing things
(D) Represent something as being less important than it really is
Answer: (D) Represent something as being less important than it really is
Explanation: To “underplay” something means to deliberately present it as less significant, serious, or dramatic than it actually is — the opposite of “overplay” or “exaggerate.” This matches option D exactly: representing something as being less important than it really is. “Intrigue” and “conspire” (A, B) relate to secret plotting, and “making things more complicated” (C) is close to the opposite meaning of underplay, so none of these fit.
Q26. Who among the following called Irwin and Gandhi ‘The Two Mahatmas’?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Mirabehn
Answer: (B) Sarojini Naidu
Explanation: During the negotiations that eventually produced the Gandhi–Irwin Pact of March 1931, the poet and freedom fighter Sarojini Naidu coined the memorable phrase “The Two Mahatmas” to describe both Mahatma Gandhi and the British Viceroy, Lord Irwin, highlighting the mutual respect and almost spiritual quality she saw in their engagement with each other despite being on opposing sides. This phrase is specifically and famously attributed to her rather than to Tagore, Nehru, or Mirabehn, who were prominent contemporaries but not the originators of this particular phrase.
Q27. Which football club won first edition of the ‘Club World Cup’ 2025?
(A) Chelsea
(B) Barcelona
(C) Real Madrid
(D) Manchester City
Answer: (A) Chelsea
Explanation: The first edition of the newly expanded, 32-team format of the FIFA Club World Cup was held in the United States in 2025. Chelsea FC defeated Paris Saint-Germain 3–0 in the final, held at MetLife Stadium, making Chelsea the inaugural champions of this revamped tournament.
Q28. Find the odd number out:
(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 72
(D) 168
Answer: (B) 36
Explanation: Here, 24, 72 and 168 are all exactly divisible by 24 (24×1=24, 24×3=72, 24×7=168), whereas 36 is not evenly divisible by 24 (36/24 = 1.5). This single divisibility check quickly isolates 36 as the odd number.
Q29. Joint Forest Management is primarily a partnership between
(A) Central Government and State Government.
(B) Local Communities and the Forest Department.
(C) NGOs and International Environment Agencies.
(D) Private Corporation and Tribal Communities.
Answer: (B) Local Communities and the Forest Department.
Explanation: Joint Forest Management (JFM) is a forestry policy adopted in India to counter deforestation and degradation by involving local communities directly in the protection and regeneration of forest land, in return for a share of the benefits (like non-timber forest produce). This partnership is specifically structured between local village communities and the government’s Forest Department.
Q30. The 2026-2027 Census of India represents a significant milestone as it is the country’s first
(A) fully conducted through door-to-door manual enumeration.
(B) digital, paperless census using electronic data collection methods.
(C) census conducted only through postal questionnaires without fieldworkers.
(D) census limited to urban areas using satellite imagery only.
Answer: (B) digital, paperless census using electronic data collection methods.
Explanation: India’s upcoming 2026–2027 Census is planned to be conducted digitally and paperlessly for the first time in the country’s history, using dedicated mobile applications for enumerators and a self-enumeration web portal for citizens to fill in their own details online, replacing the traditional paper-based, house-to-house format used in all earlier censuses.
Q31. The year 2026 has been declared by the United Nations as the year of:
(A) International year of Food Security
(B) International year of Rural Development
(C) International year of Women Farmers
(D) International year for Human Development
Answer: (C) International year of Women Farmers
Explanation: The United Nations General Assembly designated 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer, in recognition of the crucial and often under-acknowledged contribution that women make to agricultural production, household food security, and rural poverty reduction worldwide.
Q32. Finland has started a permanent deep geological repository for spent nuclear fuel. Where it is situated?
(A) It is near the Olkiluoto Nuclear Power Plant on the west coast of Finland
(B) It is in North Pole near Svalbard archipelago.
(C) It is near capital city, Helsinki just adjacent to Suomenlinna Fortress in Finland.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) It is near the Olkiluoto Nuclear Power Plant on the west coast of Finland
Explanation: Finland has built the Onkalo repository, the world’s first permanent deep geological repository designed to safely store highly radioactive spent nuclear fuel for tens of thousands of years. It is constructed more than 400 metres deep in stable ancient bedrock, located near the Olkiluoto Nuclear Power Plant on Finland’s west coast.
Q33. Which of the following cities is located closest to the Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Durgapur
(B) Baharampur
(C) Krishnanagar
(D) Chandannagore
Answer: (C) Krishnanagar
Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer runs along approximately 23°26′ North latitude, and among the West Bengal towns listed, Krishnanagar (at roughly 23.4° N) lies closest to this line, effectively on its path.
Q34. Which of the following is not part of Israel’s Missile defence system?
(A) Iron dome
(B) Thaad
(C) David’s sling
(D) Tomahawk
Answer: (D) Tomahawk
Explanation: Israel’s layered missile-defence architecture includes systems like Iron Dome (for short-range rockets), David’s Sling (for medium-to-long-range threats), and THAAD (a US-supplied system for high-altitude ballistic missile interception) — all defensive interceptor systems. The Tomahawk, is an American long-range subsonic cruise missile used for offensive land-attack strikes.
Q35. A photon of frequency 50 Hz possesses _________ J energy. (h : Planck’s constant, c : speed of light in vacuum)
(A) 50 h
(B) h/50
(C) hc/50
(D) 50 c
Answer: (A) 50 h
Explanation: Formula E = hν, where h is Planck’s constant and ν (nu) is the frequency. Substituting the given frequency, ν = 50 Hz, gives E = h × 50 = 50h joules.
Q36. If APPLES is written as BORJHP, then how shall BANANA be written as?
(A) CZPYQX
(B) CZPZQZ
(C) CZOZOZ
(D) ABLCKD
Answer: (A) CZPYQX
Explanation: APPLES → BORJHP letter by letter shows the shift on each letter alternates: +1, −1, +2, −2, +3, −3 (A→B is +1, P→O is −1, P→R is +2, L→J is −2, E→H is +3, S→P is −3). Applying this same alternating shift pattern to B-A-N-A-N-A: B+1=C, A−1=Z, N+2=P, A−2=Y, N+3=Q, A−3=X, giving CZPYQX.
Q37. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, ?
(A) 28
(B) 30
(C) 32
(D) 36
Answer: (B) 30
Explanation: Here, 2=1×2, 6=2×3, 12=3×4, 20=4×5 — a clean n(n+1) pattern. The next term therefore follows the same rule with n=5: 5×6=30.
Q38. Which among the following was circulated as symbols by the rebels during the Revolt of 1857?
(A) Sword
(B) Chapati
(C) Scarf
(D) Coins
Answer: (B) Chapati
Explanation: During the build-up to the Revolt of 1857, unusual objects like chapatis (flatbreads) and red lotus flowers were mysteriously passed from village to village across northern India. Historians believe these served as covert signals or symbols meant to spread word and coordinate resistance among local communities ahead of the uprising.
Q39. Golden Quadrilateral is a
(A) National Highway Development Project
(B) National Waterway Development Project
(C) National Railway Development Project
(D) National Airway Development Project
Answer: (A) National Highway Development Project
Explanation: The Golden Quadrilateral is one of India’s largest highway infrastructure projects, built under the National Highways Development Project (NHDP), consisting of a network of high-quality roads linking the four major metropolitan hubs of Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata (forming a rough quadrilateral shape on the map).
Q40. Which organization launched the ‘Never Alone’ AI (Artificial Intelligence) App?
(A) AIIMS, New Delhi
(B) DRDO
(C) IIT, Madras
(D) NITI Aayog
Answer: (A) AIIMS, New Delhi
Explanation: The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi launched “Never Alone,” an AI-powered mental health and wellness platform, timed to coincide with World Suicide Prevention Day, aimed at addressing psychological distress among students, reducing the stigma around seeking help, and offering continuous (24/7) psychological screening support.
Q41. In which country did Subhas Chandra Bose establish the ‘Azad Hind Radio’ broadcasting station?
(A) Austria
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Answer: (C) Germany
Explanation: After escaping British custody and travelling through various countries during World War II, Subhas Chandra Bose eventually reached Germany, where he established the Azad Hind Radio in Berlin in January 1942. This broadcasting station was used to counter Allied propaganda and to rally and mobilize Indian public opinion in favour of the independence struggle from abroad.
Q42. Who among the following presided over the first Buddhist Council?
(A) Upali
(B) Ananda
(C) Mahakasyapa
(D) Moggaliputta Tissa
Answer: (C) Mahakasyapa
Explanation: Shortly after the passing (Mahaparinirvana) of the Buddha, his followers convened the First Buddhist Council at the Sattapani Cave near Rajgriha, under the patronage of King Ajatashatru, in order to preserve and formally recite the Buddha’s teachings before they could be lost or distorted. This council was presided over by the senior monk Mahakasyapa, who took the lead role in organizing and conducting the proceedings.
Q43. If Punam, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other—
(A) She makes no profit and no loss
(B) She makes a profit of 1%
(C) She suffers a loss of 1%
(D) She suffers a loss of 2%
Answer: (C) She suffers a loss of 1%
Explanation: whenever a problem involves selling two items at the SAME price, one at a profit of x% and the other at a loss of the SAME percentage x%, there is a fixed general result: the seller always ends up with a net LOSS, never a net profit or exact break-even, and that loss always equals x²/100 percent of the price. Here x = 10, so the loss works out to 10²/100 = 100/100 = 1%.
Q44. Which of the following officers of the Azad Hind Fauj did not face the famous Red Fort Trials?
(A) Prem Sahgal
(B) Mohan Singh
(C) Shah Nawaz Khan
(D) Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon
Answer: (B) Mohan Singh
Explanation: The most famous Red Fort Trial in late 1945 was a joint court-martial of three senior Indian National Army (INA) officers — Colonel Shah Nawaz Khan, Colonel Prem Kumar Sahgal, and Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon — who were tried together for their roles with the INA. General Mohan Singh, although he was the founder of the earlier, first version of the INA, had already been sidelined and detained separately by that time, and so he was not one of the three officers who stood trial in this particular, famous joint Red Fort case.
Q45. What is the efficiency of currently available commercial solar cells?
(A) 0-5%
(B) 15-20%
(C) 30-40%
(D) 80-90%
Answer: (B) 15-20%
Explanation: The vast majority of solar panels installed and commercially sold worldwide today are made using crystalline silicon photovoltaic cell technology, which is a mature but still moderately efficient technology, typically converting only about 15% to 20% of incoming sunlight into usable electricity (the rest is lost as heat or reflection). Higher efficiencies (like 30–40% or more) exist only in specialized, expensive multi-junction cells used mainly in aerospace applications, not standard commercial solar panels for everyday use.
Q46. Who was first selected by Gandhiji for his ‘Individual Satyagraha’ movement?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Achyut Patwardhan
(C) Aruna Asaf Ali
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Answer: (D) Vinoba Bhave
Explanation: Gandhi launched the Individual Satyagraha campaign in October 1940 as a symbolic, disciplined form of protest against British war policies, deliberately choosing to send out one carefully selected satyagrahi at a time rather than a mass movement. He selected Acharya Vinoba Bhave — known for his deep commitment to non-violence and simple living — as the very first individual satyagrahi, with Jawaharlal Nehru following as the second, reflecting Gandhi’s careful, staged approach to this particular campaign.
Q47. Which currency is known as ‘vehicle currency’?
(A) Euro
(B) Yen
(C) Pound
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation: A “vehicle currency” refers to a widely trusted, dominant international currency that two countries use as a common medium of exchange or invoicing when trading with each other, even if neither country’s own currency is directly involved — historically and currently, this role is overwhelmingly played by the US Dollar. Since the US Dollar itself is not listed among the given options (only Euro, Yen, and Pound are offered), none of the actual options qualifies, making “None of the above” the technically correct choice.
Q48. Which of the following animals is natural reservoir of Nipah viruses?
(A) Bats
(B) Turtles
(C) Migratory birds
(D) Horses
Answer: (A) Bats
Explanation: According to guidance from the World Health Organization, fruit bats belonging to the Pteropodidae family (commonly called flying foxes) act as the natural reservoir hosts for the Nipah virus, meaning the virus persists and circulates in these bat populations in nature, from where it can occasionally spill over into other animals (like pigs) or directly into humans.
Q49. Ginger is a stem because
(A) it grows horizontally in the soil.
(B) it stores food materials.
(C) absence of chlorophyll.
(D) it has nodes and inter-nodes.
Answer: (D) it has nodes and inter-nodes.
Explanation: Botanically, the distinguishing feature that separates a stem from a root is the presence of nodes (points where leaves or buds arise) and internodes (the spaces between nodes), along with structures like scale leaves and axillary buds. Ginger, despite growing underground and looking root-like, is classified as a modified underground stem (specifically called a rhizome) precisely because it exhibits these nodal features — not because of its horizontal growth, food storage, or lack of chlorophyll, which are secondary characteristics that do not by themselves define stem versus root identity.
Q50. Which tribal leader was regarded as an incarnation of God (Dharti Aba)?
(A) Kanu Santhal
(B) Rupa Naik
(C) Birsa Munda
(D) Joria Bhagat
Answer: (C) Birsa Munda
Explanation: Birsa Munda, a tribal leader from the Munda community, led the Munda Rebellion (also called Ulgulan, meaning “revolt”) against oppressive British colonial land policies in the late nineteenth century. His followers came to revere him as “Dharti Aba,” meaning “Father of the Earth,” viewing him almost as a divine or messianic figure sent to protect and liberate his people.
Q51. A clerk is given 3 letters written in a language unknown to her. She is also given an envelope with address corresponding to each letter written in same language. If the clerk has to put the letters in the envelopes, in how many ways she can do it so that none of the 3 envelopes has the letter with the correct address in it?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
Answer: (B) 2
Explanation: For a small number of items like 3 (letters A, B, C into envelopes a, b, c), it is quick to simply list all 3! = 6 total permutations and check each one directly rather than deriving the general derangement formula: ABC (all correct), ACB (A correct), BAC (C correct), BCA (none correct ✓), CAB (none correct ✓), CBA (B correct). Only BCA and CAB have zero letters in their correct envelope, giving exactly 2 valid arrangements.
Q52. The average marks obtained by the boys and girls in a class are 52 and 42 respectively. If the average marks of all students in that class is 50, then the percentage of boys present in the class is
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 80%
(D) Can’t be determined from above data.
Answer: (C) 80%
Explanation: The overall class average (50) sits between the boys’ average (52) and the girls’ average (42); the distance from the overall average to each group’s average gives the ratio in reverse: Boys : Girls = (Overall−Girls) : (Boys−Overall) = (50−42) : (52−50) = 8 : 2 = 4 : 1. So boys make up 4 out of every 5 students, i.e., 4/5 × 100 = 80% of the class.
Q53. The Vice-President of the Interim Government formed in 1946 was:
(A) Auchinleck
(B) Liaquat Ali Khan
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation: The Interim Government of India, formed on 2 September 1946 as a transitional step before full independence, was formally headed by the British Viceroy as its President. However, the actual working head of the government — effectively functioning as its Prime Minister in practice — was Jawaharlal Nehru, who held the formal title of Vice-President of the Executive Council. This is why, despite the ceremonial headship resting with the Viceroy, Nehru is remembered as the Vice-President (and de facto leader) of this particular Interim Government.
Q54. The script of Santhal language is
(A) Tirhuta
(B) Devnagri
(C) Olchiki
(D) Chisol
Answer: (C) Olchiki
Explanation: Olchiki is the specific script that was invented for writing the Santhali language in 1925, by the scholar and reformer Raghunath Murmu, in the Mayurbhanj district of present-day Odisha, giving the Santhali language (spoken by the Santhal tribal community) its own distinct written form. This is different from Tirhuta, which is traditionally used for writing Maithili in the Bihar/Nepal border region, and from Devnagari, which is a shared script used for several unrelated languages like Hindi, Marathi, Nepali, and Sanskrit but was not specifically created for Santhali.
Q55. The difference between Gross Domestic Product and Net Domestic Product is
(A) Government Revenue
(B) Net Indirect Tax
(C) Depreciation
(D) Foreign Aid
Answer: (C) Depreciation
Explanation: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the total value of goods and services produced in an economy, without accounting for the wearing out or ageing of capital assets (machinery, buildings, infrastructure) used in that production. Net Domestic Product (NDP) corrects for this by subtracting an estimated value for depreciation from GDP, giving a more accurate picture of the economy’s genuinely net (rather than gross) output.
Q56. Jarwas live in
(A) Andaman
(B) Mazuli
(C) Sagar
(D) Lakshadweep
Answer: (A) Andaman
Explanation: The Jarawa, one of the indigenous tribal communities of India, live in the dense tropical forests and coastal areas of the South and Middle Andaman Islands, within the Andaman & Nicobar Islands union territory. Majuli (a river island in Assam, home to different communities like the Mising and Deori), Sagar Island (in the Ganges delta of West Bengal, known for pilgrimage), or Lakshadweep (whose population is predominantly of Malayali descent).
Q57. Select the word which is different from the rest
(A) Car
(B) Bicycle
(C) Bus
(D) Train
Answer: (B) Bicycle
Explanation: Cars, buses, and trains are all mechanized transport vehicles that rely entirely on engines (fuel-powered or electric) to move, requiring no direct human physical effort to propel them forward. A bicycle, by contrast, is powered purely by human pedalling — manual physical effort — with no engine or automated propulsion system at all, making it fundamentally different in kind from the other three vehicles listed, and therefore the odd one out.
Q58. Which of the following Insurances is related to loss of wealth?
(A) Life Insurance
(B) General Insurance
(C) Crop Insurance
(D) Social Insurance
Answer: (B) General Insurance
Explanation: General Insurance is the category of insurance that covers physical, non-life assets — such as homes, vehicles, businesses, and other property — against risks like damage, theft, or accidents, thereby directly protecting a person’s accumulated material wealth. Life Insurance instead covers the risk to a person’s life itself (not physical wealth per se), Crop Insurance covers agricultural produce specifically, and Social Insurance relates to broader social security schemes.
Q59. A body covers half the distance with a speed of 20 m/s and the other half with 30 m/s. The average speed of the body during the whole journey
(A) 0 m/s
(B) 24 m/s
(C) 25 m/s
(D) 28 m/s
Answer: (B) 24 m/s
Explanation: Use the harmonic-mean formula: Average speed = (2 × speed1 × speed2) / (speed1 + speed2). Substituting the given speeds: (2 × 20 × 30) / (20+30) = 1200/50 = 24 m/s.
Q60. Which of the below mentioned Indo-Greek ruler issued coins bearing the figures of Krishna and Balarama?
(A) Menander
(B) Agathocles
(C) Heliocles
(D) Archebius
Answer: (B) Agathocles
Explanation: Among the Indo-Greek rulers who governed parts of northwestern India after Alexander’s successors, Agathocles of Bactria (ruling around 190–180 BCE) is notably remembered for minting coins depicting Hindu deities — specifically Balarama-Samkarshana and Vasudeva-Krishna — reflecting the cultural blending between Greek rulers and local Indian religious traditions of the time.
Q61. The Anarchial and Revolutionary Crimes Act was popularly known as
(A) Defence of India Act
(B) Rowlatt Act
(C) Indian Penal Code
(D) Lexi-loci Act
Answer: (B) Rowlatt Act
Explanation: The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, passed by the British colonial government in 1919, became infamously known as the Rowlatt Act. It granted the government sweeping powers to detain and imprison individuals suspected of revolutionary or terrorist activity without a proper trial, a measure that sparked intense public outrage across India and directly contributed to the tragic Jallianwala Bagh massacre later that same year, making it a significant, name-changed piece of repressive colonial legislation.
Q62. Which of the following is not a problem of the unorganized sector?
(A) Low productivity
(B) High taxation
(C) Low technology
(D) Low wages
Answer: (B) High taxation
Explanation: The unorganized (informal) sector of the economy — comprising small, often unregistered businesses and workers — is typically characterized by problems like low productivity, outdated or minimal technology, and low wages, largely because these enterprises lack the scale, capital, and regulation of the formal sector. However, because many unorganized businesses operate outside formal tax registration systems, they generally face LOWER, not higher, tax burdens/compliance compared to the organized sector — making “high taxation” the one option that does NOT describe a typical problem of this sector.
Q63. Who among the following presented the famous Kohinoor diamond to Emperor Shah Jahan?
(A) Murad
(B) Mor jumla
(C) Aurangzeb
(D) Dara Shikoh
Answer: (B) Mor jumla
Explanation: The Kohinoor diamond, one of the most famous gemstones in history, changed hands multiple times through conquest and gift-giving across centuries. At one specific point, Mir Jumla — a powerful merchant-turned-statesman who served under the Golconda Sultanate before later switching allegiance to the Mughals — presented the diamond to the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in 1656, as a strategic gift intended to win the emperor’s favour and secure his own political position.
Q64. Toto, a primitive tribal group, is found in:
(A) Alipurduar district
(B) Uttar Dinajpur and Malda districts
(C) Jhargram district
(D) Bankura and Jhargram districts
Answer: (A) Alipurduar district
Explanation: The Toto community is recognized as a small, historically isolated “primitive” tribal group (a term used in Indian administrative classification for particularly vulnerable tribal communities), residing mainly in the small settlement of Totopara, which lies within the Alipurduar district of West Bengal.
Q65. Which ruler ordered the construction of the Royal Road from East Bengal to Peshawar, also known as Sadak-e-Azam?
(A) Humayun
(B) Sher Shah
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir
Answer: (B) Sher Shah
Explanation: Sher Shah Suri, the founder of the short-lived but administratively influential Sur Empire, is credited with constructing the “Sadak-e-Azam” (meaning “Great Road”), a major trunk route running from Bengal in the east through to Peshawar (and further towards Central Asia) in the northwest, designed to facilitate trade, communication, and troop movement across his empire. This same road later evolved and came to be historically known as the Grand Trunk Road, one of Asia’s oldest and longest major roads.
Q66. Agar-agar is derived from a/an
(A) Bryophytes
(B) Algae
(C) Fungi
(D) Pteridophytes
Answer: (B) Algae
Explanation: Agar-agar, a gelatin-like substance widely used in cooking (as a vegetarian setting agent) and in laboratory microbiology (as a growth medium base), is extracted from certain species of red algae (scientifically, the phylum Rhodophyta), particularly from the genera Gelidium and Gracilaria.
Q67. The leader of the Kherwar or Safa Hor movement was
(A) Birsa Munda
(B) Bhagirathi Manjhi
(C) Baba Ramachandra
(D) Madari Pasi
Answer: (B) Bhagirathi Manjhi
Explanation: The Kherwar movement, also known as the Safa Hor (“Pure Men”) movement, was launched in 1874 among the Santhal tribal community, led by Bhagirath Manjhi. It combined elements of socio-religious reform (encouraging social purification and moral discipline within the community) with active resistance against oppressive land revenue policies imposed by colonial authorities — a movement distinct from, though sometimes historically linked in spirit to, later tribal leaders like Birsa Munda, who led a separate movement (the Munda Rebellion) some decades afterward.
Q68. A person walks 500 m North-East, then 1km South, turns right to walk another 1km. Then walks 500m South-West and in the end, walks 1km towards North. Where will he be at the end from the starting position?
(A) 1 km South west
(B) 500m North
(C) 500m East
(D) 1km West
Answer: (D) 1km West
Explanation: Careful tallying of all five movements (500m NE, 1km S, 1km turn right/East, 500m SW, 1km N) shows that the net eastward and westward components cancel out except for a residual displacement, and the north-south components similarly combine, leaving a final net position of 1 km due West of the starting point.
Q69. On April 7,2026, two nations vetoed a UN Security Council resolution aimed at improving maritime security in the Strait of Hormuz. Which are the two nations?
(A) Russia and China
(B) China and Netherlands
(C) Ukraine and USA
(D) Pakistan and Columbia
Answer: (A) Russia and China
Explanation: On 7 April 2026, a UN Security Council resolution proposed by Bahrain, intended to coordinate international defensive measures for maritime security and safe navigation in the strategically vital Strait of Hormuz, was blocked when Russia and China — both permanent, veto-wielding members of the Security Council — exercised their veto power against it, reflecting broader geopolitical tensions.
Q70. Sex Ratio in a population is defined as
(A) the number of females per 1000 males.
(B) the number of boys born to a couple in their lifetime.
(C) the number of infant girls per 1000 females.
(D) the number of males minus the number of females in a population.
Answer: (A) the number of females per 1000 males.
Explanation: In Indian demographic and census terminology, the sex ratio of a population is formally and specifically defined as the number of females present per 1000 males — a standardized, normalized measure that allows meaningful comparison between regions or time periods regardless of total population size.
Q71. On a per hectare basis which of the following forests will hold maximum amount of carbon?
(A) Peninsular Sal forest as found in West Medinipur district
(B) Tropical moist deciduous forest as found in Buxa Tiger Reserve
(C) Mangrove forest as found in Sunderbans
(D) Evergreen Temperate forest as found in Lava area of Kalimpong
Answer: (C) Mangrove forest as found in Sunderbans
Explanation: On a per-hectare basis, mangrove ecosystems (such as those found in the Sunderbans) are recognized globally as being exceptionally carbon-dense, largely because they store vast quantities of organic carbon not just in their visible living biomass (trees, roots) but especially deep within their waterlogged, oxygen-poor (“anaerobic”) soils, where decomposition is extremely slow, allowing carbon to accumulate and remain locked away for centuries — a phenomenon often called “blue carbon.
Q72. A planet of mass m is revolving around the sun in a circle of radius r. What is the work done by the gravitational force F in moving the planet over half the circumference of the circle?
(A) zero
(B) F× 2π
(C) Fx π²
(D) Fx 2r
Answer: (A) zero
Explanation: Since work done equals force multiplied by displacement in the direction of the force (W = F·d·cosθ), and here the angle θ between force and displacement is always 90°, cos(90°) = 0, meaning the work done by this force is always exactly zero, regardless of whether the planet travels half, a full, or any other fraction of the circumference.
Q73. Which of the following cities was not founded by Firoz Tughlaq?
(A) Hissar
(B) Jaunpur
(C) Fatehpur
(D) Fatehbad
Answer: (C) Fatehpur
Explanation: Firoz Shah Tughlaq, a fourteenth-century Delhi Sultanate ruler known for extensive city-building, is credited with founding cities including Hissar (1354 AD, originally called Hisar-e-Firoza), Jaunpur (1359 AD, named after his cousin Muhammad bin Tughlaq/Jauna Khan), and Fatehabad (built to celebrate the birth of his son, Fateh Khan). Fatehpur, however — specifically referring to Fatehpur Sikri — was founded much later, in 1571, by the Mughal Emperor Akbar as his new capital city.
Q74. How does a non-green (coloured) leaf synthesize food?
(A) The red and purple pigments directly absorb heat from the Sunlight, thus replacing the need for photosynthesis.
(B) The leaf contains green chlorophyll but it remains hidden under other pigments.
(C) Coloured leaves steal glucose from neighbouring green plants through air using microscopic spores.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) The leaf contains green chlorophyll but it remains hidden under other pigments.
Explanation: Leaves that appear red, purple, or otherwise non-green in colour are not actually devoid of chlorophyll; rather, they still contain green chlorophyll pigment necessary for photosynthesis, but this green colour is visually masked or overshadowed by a much larger concentration of other accessory pigments, such as carotenoids (yellow/orange) or anthocyanins (red/purple), which happen to dominate the leaf’s outward appearance. This is why such leaves can still photosynthesize normally — the chlorophyll is present and functional, just hidden from view — rather than the plant somehow substituting heat absorption or “stealing” glucose from neighbouring plants, which are biologically implausible mechanisms.
Q75. Who among the following Urdu poets was invited to the Second and Third Round Table Conferences?
(A) Firaq Gorakhpuri
(B) Muhammad Iqbal
(C) Josh Malihabadi
(D) Faiz Ahmad Faiz
Answer: (B) Muhammad Iqbal
Explanation: Sir Muhammad Iqbal — celebrated as one of the most influential Urdu (and Persian) poets and philosophers of the twentieth century, and later regarded as a key intellectual figure behind the idea of Pakistan — was specifically invited to attend both the Second Round Table Conference (1931) and the Third Round Table Conference (1932) held in London, where he represented Muslim political interests in discussions about India’s constitutional future. This distinguishes him from other notable Urdu poets of the era (Firaq Gorakhpuri, Josh Malihabadi, Faiz Ahmad Faiz), who, despite their literary stature, were not delegates at these particular constitutional conferences.
Q76. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Union Executive?
(A) Part V
(B) Part III
(C) Part VI
(D) Part XI
Answer: (A) Part V
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is organized into several Parts, each dealing with a distinct aspect of governance. Part V (spanning Articles 52 to 151) is titled “The Union,” and its first chapter (Articles 52–78) specifically lays out the structure of the Union Executive — covering the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and the Attorney General for India. This is different from Part III (Fundamental Rights), Part VI (the States, including State Executives), and Part XI (Union-State relations), which deal with entirely separate constitutional subjects.
Q77. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
(A) Finance Commission – Article 324
(B) C.A.G.-Article 148
(C) U.P.S.C. – Article 315
(D) Election Commission – Article 324
Answer: (A) Finance Commission – Article 324
Explanation: Checking each pairing against the actual constitutional provisions: the Finance Commission is established under Article 280 of the Constitution (not Article 324, which instead relates to the powers of the Election Commission), making the pairing “Finance Commission – Article 324” factually incorrect and therefore the answer to this “which is wrongly matched” question. By contrast, the other three pairings — C.A.G. with Article 148, U.P.S.C. with Article 315, and Election Commission with Article 324 — are all genuinely and correctly matched to their respective constitutional articles.
Q78. The Chamber of Princes (Narendra Mandal) was established in which year?
(A) 1858
(B) 1915
(C) 1920
(D) 1947
Answer: (C) 1920
Explanation: The Chamber of Princes (also called Narendra Mandal) — a body created to represent India’s numerous princely states in dealings with the British government — was formally proclaimed under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919, by a royal declaration from King-Emperor George V in December 1919. However, its actual formal establishment and functional setup took place in the following year, 1920 (with its first inaugural meeting occurring even later, in February 1921).
Q79. A persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services is known as
(A) Deflation
(B) Disinflation
(C) Stagflation
(D) Depression
Answer: (A) Deflation
Explanation: Deflation refers specifically to a persistent, sustained decline in the general price level of goods and services across an economy, effectively meaning the inflation rate falls below zero percent. This is distinct from disinflation, which merely describes a slowdown in the RATE at which prices are still rising (prices keep increasing, just more slowly), and from stagflation, which describes the unusual combination of high inflation together with stagnant economic growth.
Q80. Why antibiotics are not prescribed to kill viral infections?
(A) Viruses take refuge in a cell organelle where antibiotics cannot reach.
(B) Viruses neither have cell walls nor their own metabolic machinery that can be targeted by antibiotics.
(C) Viruses mutate rapidly.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) Viruses neither have cell walls nor their own metabolic machinery that can be targeted by antibiotics.
Explanation: Antibiotics function by specifically targeting structures and processes unique to bacterial cells — such as breaking down bacterial cell walls or interfering with bacterial metabolic pathways used for growth and reproduction. Viruses, however, are fundamentally different: they lack cell walls of their own and do not possess independent metabolic machinery, instead hijacking a host organism’s own cells to replicate.
Q81. East Kolkata Wetland has been declared as
(A) Biodiversity Site
(B) World Heritage Site
(C) Ramsar Site
(D) World Trade Site
Answer: (C) Ramsar Site
Explanation: The East Kolkata Wetlands, an extensive and ecologically unique complex of natural and human-engineered wetlands on the eastern edge of Kolkata, perform the remarkable function of naturally treating and recycling large volumes of the city’s untreated municipal sewage, using this nutrient-rich water to support extensive fish farming and agriculture in a self-sustaining way. In recognition of this ecological and functional significance, the wetlands were formally designated a Ramsar Site of international importance in 2002.
Q82. Pneumatophores are modified root and negatively geotropic. These are
(A) Respiratory roots
(B) Photosynthetic roots
(C) Food storing roots
(D) Water storing roots
Answer: (A) Respiratory roots
Explanation: Pneumatophores are specialized root structures found in mangrove trees and other plants that grow in waterlogged, oxygen-deprived (anaerobic) swampy soils. Because normal underground respiration is difficult in such oxygen-starved mud, these roots have evolved to grow upward, away from the pull of gravity (a trait called “negative geotropism”), projecting above the soil or water surface so that the plant can absorb atmospheric oxygen directly through small pores on their surface called lenticels — making them fundamentally respiratory in function.
Q83. Mass of atom is determined by
(A) Proton + Neutron
(B) Proton + electron
(C) Neutron + Electron
(D) Proton + Neutron + Electron
Answer: (A) Proton + Neutron
Explanation: The overall mass of an atom is overwhelmingly determined by the combined mass of its protons and neutrons — collectively referred to as “nucleons” — which reside in the dense central nucleus. Electrons, while essential to an atom’s chemical behaviour and charge, have a mass so vanishingly small (roughly 1/1836th that of a proton) that their contribution to total atomic mass is considered negligible for practical purposes, which is why atomic mass calculations focus on protons and neutrons alone, rather than including electron mass in any meaningful way.
Q84. The most abundant enzyme in the living world is
(A) Lipase
(B) DNase
(C) Zymase
(D) Rubisco
Answer: (D) Rubisco
Explanation: Rubisco (formally, Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase) is the enzyme responsible for the crucial first step of carbon fixation during photosynthesis, converting atmospheric carbon dioxide into a usable organic form. Because it is present in nearly every photosynthetic organism on Earth (plants, algae, cyanobacteria) and, notably, works quite slowly and inefficiently compared to many other enzymes, organisms compensate by producing it in enormous quantities to sustain adequate photosynthesis rates — a combination of universal presence and high production volume that makes Rubisco, by mass, the most abundant single protein/enzyme on the planet, well ahead of more specialized enzymes like lipase, DNase, or zymase, which are far more limited in their distribution or scale of production.
Q85. Public Interest Litigation is primarily associated with which concept?
(A) Judicial Review
(B) Judicial Activism
(C) Federalism
(D) NITI Ayog
Answer: (B) Judicial Activism
Explanation: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is a specific legal mechanism, developed largely through Indian judicial practice, that allows any public-spirited citizen or organization — even someone not personally or directly affected — to approach the courts on behalf of a disadvantaged or voiceless group whose rights are being violated. This proactive, rights-protecting role taken on by the judiciary through PIL is considered a hallmark example of “Judicial Activism,” where courts step beyond a purely passive, dispute-resolving role to actively advance social justice.
Q86. Who was sent by the Indian National Congress to represent its views at the Versailles Conference in 1919?
(A) B. G. Tilak
(B) Annie Besant
(C) C. R. Das
(D) S. N. Banerjee
Answer: (A) B. G. Tilak
Explanation: Following the end of the First World War, the Indian National Congress sought to place India’s demands for self-determination before the international community at the Paris Peace Conference held at Versailles in 1919. The Congress selected Bal Gangadhar Tilak as its chosen representative for this mission; although British authorities refused to issue him a passport to physically travel to France, Tilak nonetheless managed to convey India’s position by sending a detailed written memorandum directly to Georges Clemenceau, the President of the Peace Conference, rather than the mission being carried out by Annie Besant, C.R. Das, or S.N. Banerjee, who were prominent leaders.
Q87. Which American Province has officially declared ‘Diwali’ as a State holiday?
(A) Texas
(B) New York
(C) California
(D) Boston
Answer: (C) California
Explanation: California became one of a small number of US states to grant Diwali the status of an official, legally codified state holiday, through Assembly Bill 268 signed into law by Governor Gavin Newsom — joining a short list of states (including Pennsylvania and Connecticut) that have given the festival this formal statewide recognition. This differs from Texas, where Diwali is celebrated widely and culturally but without formal statewide statutory backing, and from New York, where the recognition (a mandatory public school holiday) applies specifically within New York City rather than across the entire state; Boston, meanwhile, is simply a city within Massachusetts.
Q88. In an enclosure, there are crows as well as cows. If there are 30 heads and 100 legs, what is the ratio of the cows to crows?
(A) 1:2
(B) 1:3
(C) 2:1
(D) 3:1
Answer: (C) 2:1
Explanation: Let cows = x and crows = y: heads give x + y = 30, and legs give 4x + 2y = 100 (since cows have 4 legs and crows, like all birds, have 2). Substituting y = 30 − x into the legs equation: 4x + 2(30−x) = 100 → 4x + 60 − 2x = 100 → 2x = 40 → x = 20, so y = 10. This gives cows:crows = 20:10 = 2:1.
Q89. The leader of the Reang uprising in Tripura (1942-43) was
(A) Parikshit Jamatiya
(B) Ratan Mani
(C) Birsa Munda
(D) Bir Bikram Manikya
Answer: (B) Ratan Mani
Explanation: Ratan Mani (also referred to in some sources as Ratan Mani Reang or Ratan Muni) led the Reang tribal uprising in the princely state of Tripura during the years 1942–43, a localized but significant instance of tribal resistance during the broader freedom struggle period.
Q90. “My two fingers on a typewriter have nev connected with my brain. My hand on a pen doc A fountain pen, of course”, Graham Green Which one of the following is a manufacturer Fountain Pens?
(A) Voltas
(B) Sailor
(C) Hundai
(D) Kirloskar
Answer: (B) Sailor
Explanation: Sailor is internationally recognized as a long-established, high-quality Japanese manufacturer specifically of fountain pens, fitting neatly with the quotation about the value of a physical, handwritten connection between pen and brain.
Q91. Consider the following pairs: Dam – State (1) Rihand – Uttarpradesh (II) Massanjore – West Bengal (III) Rana Pratap Sagar – Rajasthan (IV) Hirakud – Chhattisgarh. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(A) (I), (II) and (IV)
(B) (II) only
(C) (II) and (IV)
(D) (I) and (III)
Answer: (D) (I) and (III)
Explanation: (I) Rihand dam is indeed located in Uttar Pradesh (in the Sonbhadra district) — correct; (II) Massanjore dam, although built and operated by the West Bengal government, is actually physically situated across the border in the Dumka district of Jharkhand, not within West Bengal itself — incorrect; (III) Rana Pratap Sagar dam is indeed located on the Chambal River in Rajasthan — correct; (IV) Hirakud dam is actually built on the Mahanadi River in Odisha, not in Chhattisgarh — incorrect. Since only pairs (I) and (III) hold up against these facts, the correct combination is “(I) and (III).”
Q92. Who among the following abolished the pilgrimage tax?
(A) Humayun
(B) Sher Shah
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir
Answer: (C) Akbar
Explanation: The Mughal Emperor Akbar, known for his broader policy of religious accommodation and tolerance toward his diverse subjects, formally abolished the pilgrimage tax in 1563 — a levy that had previously been imposed on non-Muslim pilgrims visiting religious sites — as part of his wider effort to reduce religious discrimination within his empire, a policy decision specifically credited to Akbar.
Q93. A body covers half the distance with a speed of 10 m/s and the remaining half with a speed of 40 m/s. Then the average speed of the body over the entire journey
(A) is 16 m/s.
(B) is 20 m/s
(C) is 25 m/s
(D) will depend on the total distance.
Answer: (A) is 16 m/s.
Explanation: Average speed = (2 × speed1 × speed2)/(speed1+speed2). With speeds of 10 m/s and 40 m/s: (2×10×40)/(10+40) = 800/50 = 16 m/s.
Q94. Which three African countries have withdrew themselves from the International Criminal Court?
(A) Burkina Faso, Mali, Niger
(B) Congo, Gabon, Togo
(C) Ethiopia, Somalia, Kenya
(D) Nigeria, Ghana, Sudan
Answer: (A) Burkina Faso, Mali, Niger
Explanation: In September 2025, the three members of the Alliance of Sahel States — Burkina Faso, Mali, and Niger, a bloc of West African nations that have taken a more independent geopolitical stance in recent years — jointly announced their intention to withdraw from the International Criminal Court (ICC), a significant and specific development in recent international relations.
Q95. The two Vaishnava brothers Roop and Sanatan who held high posts in court of
(A) Ilyas Shah
(B) Alauddin Hussain Shah
(C) Firoz Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Shah
Answer: (B) Alauddin Hussain Shah
Explanation: Before they became famous as key religious figures associated with the Bhakti saint Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, the two brothers Rupa Goswami and Sanatana Goswami held senior administrative positions in the royal court of Sultan Alauddin Hussain Shah of Bengal — Sanatana serving as the chief minister (referred to by the title Sakor Malik) and Rupa as the private secretary (Dabir Khas).
Q96. During whose reign Malik Muhaamad Jaisi completed poem Padmavat?
(A) Alauddin Khaliji
(B) Ruknuddin Firoz Khiliji
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
Answer: (C) Sher Shah
Explanation: Malik Muhammad Jayasi, a celebrated Sufi poet writing in Awadhi, completed his renowned epic poem “Padmavat” in 1540 AD, during a period when the Sur dynasty, founded by Sher Shah Suri, held power in northern India after temporarily displacing the Mughals — meaning the poem’s completion falls specifically within Sher Shah’s reign.
Q97. Which of the following social and political leaders opposed the ‘Age of Consent Bill’?
(A) W. C. Bonnerjee
(B) Gokhale
(C) Ranade
(D) Tilak
Answer: (D) Tilak
Explanation: Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a vocal and forceful opponent of the Age of Consent Bill of 1891, which sought to raise the minimum age for consummation of marriage as a social reform measure. Tilak argued that such legislative interference by a foreign colonial government amounted to an unacceptable intrusion into deeply held Indian religious and social customs, positioning himself in opposition to other reform-minded contemporaries like Gokhale and Ranade, who supported the Bill as a necessary step toward protecting women and children.
Q98. Which out of the following letters should replace the question mark in the series? A, D, G, J, M, ?
(A) O
(B) P
(C) Q
(D) R
Answer: (B) P
Explanation: Here, A=1, D=4, G=7, J=10, M=13 — each successive letter is exactly 3 positions ahead of the previous one (a constant common difference of +3). Continuing this same pattern, the next number is 13+3=16.
Q99. The tax imposed on import and export commodity is known as
(A) Customs Duties
(B) Excise Duties
(C) VAT
(D) GST
Answer: (A) Customs Duties
Explanation: Customs Duties are taxes levied specifically on goods as they cross a country’s international borders — whether being imported into the country or exported out of it. This is conceptually distinct from Excise Duties (an indirect tax charged on goods manufactured domestically, within the country’s own borders, regardless of whether they cross any border), and from VAT and GST, both of which are broader domestic consumption taxes applied at various stages within a country’s internal economy.
Q100. Who among the following Gupta rulers credited with defeating the Hunas ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Skandagupta
(D) Bhanugupta
Answer: (C) Skandagupta
Explanation: Among the Gupta rulers listed, Skandagupta is specifically credited with successfully repelling a major invasion by the nomadic Huna tribes around 455 CE, a significant military achievement that is commemorated in the historical Bhitari pillar inscription associated with his reign.
Q101. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Kandla — Maharashtra
(B) Paradip — Odisha
(C) Tuticorin — Tamilnadu
(D) Cochin — Kerala
Answer: (A) Kandla — Maharashtra
Explanation: Checking each port-state pairing against real geography: Kandla, a major port, is actually located in the state of Gujarat, not Maharashtra as claimed in option A, making this the incorrectly matched pair being asked for. By contrast, Paradip is correctly located in Odisha, Tuticorin is correctly located in Tamil Nadu, and Cochin is correctly located in Kerala — all genuine, accurate pairings that do not contain any error.
Q102. Which of the following elements is a semiconductor?
(A) Iron
(B) Zinc
(C) Mercury
(D) Silicon
Answer: (D) Silicon
Explanation: Silicon is a well-known semiconductor element, meaning its electrical conductivity lies between that of a full conductor and a full insulator, and can be finely controlled through techniques like doping — a property that makes it the foundational material of the modern electronics and computer chip industry. Iron, zinc, and mercury, by contrast, are all metallic elements that behave as good electrical conductors, not semiconductors, placing them in a fundamentally different category of material behaviour.
Q103. Who was the first Indian ruler to join the Subsidiary Alliance?
(A) Peshwa Bajirao II
(B) The King of Travancore
(C) The Nawab of Oudh
(D) The Nizam of Hyderabad
Answer: (D) The Nizam of Hyderabad
Explanation: Lord Wellesley’s Subsidiary Alliance system required Indian princely rulers to accept British troops stationed within their territory (paid for by the ruler) in exchange for British protection, while also surrendering significant control over their own foreign policy. The Nizam of Hyderabad became the very first Indian ruler to formally accept these terms, doing so in 1798, ahead of other rulers such as the Nawab of Oudh, the King of Travancore, or the later Peshwa Bajirao II, who entered similar arrangements only afterward.
Q104. Who opposed the burning of foreign clothes during the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(A) Chittaranjan Das
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer: (B) Rabindranath Tagore
Explanation: During the Non-Cooperation Movement, when many nationalist leaders encouraged the public burning of British-manufactured foreign cloth as a symbol of self-reliance (swadeshi) and protest, the poet Rabindranath Tagore notably spoke out against this specific practice. He viewed the deliberate destruction of usable clothing — even foreign-made — as an economically wasteful and, in his view, somewhat misguided form of protest, setting his position apart from more mainstream nationalist figures like Chittaranjan Das, Subhas Chandra Bose, or Tilak, who did not raise this particular objection.
Q105. In an examination, a student gets 4 marks for every correct answer, 1 mark for every unattempted question and 0 marks for every wrong answer. If there are 30 questions, which of the following total scores is not attainable by a student?
(A) 113
(B) 114
(C) 115
(D) 117
Answer: (C) 115
Explanation: Shortcut: let c = number of correct answers, w = number of wrong answers, and u = number of unattempted questions, with the constraint c + w + u = 30 (total questions). Since scoring is 4 marks per correct answer and 1 mark per unattempted question (with 0 for wrong), the total score is always 4c + u. For any fixed value of c, since w can range from 0 up to (30−c), the corresponding u ranges from (30−c) down to 0, meaning the achievable score for that c ranges continuously from a minimum of 4c (when u=0) up to a maximum of 4c + (30−c) = 3c+30 (when w=0, u=30−c). Checking nearby values of c shows that a score of 114 is achievable at c=28 (maximum for that c), while a score of 116 becomes achievable only once c reaches 29 (its minimum for that c) — leaving 115 falling squarely into an unreachable gap between these two c-brackets, making 115 the one score that cannot actually be obtained by any valid combination.
Q106. Which particular bonding exists in H2O and HF but does not exist in H2S?
(A) Covalent bonding
(B) Ionic bonding
(C) Hydrogen bonding
(D) Metallic bonding
Answer: (C) Hydrogen bonding
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is a special, relatively strong type of intermolecular attraction that occurs specifically when hydrogen is bonded to a small, highly electronegative atom like oxygen (O), nitrogen (N), or fluorine (F) — as is the case in both H2O (via O–H bonds) and HF (via F–H bonds), both of which readily form hydrogen bonds with neighbouring molecules. Sulphur, found in H2S, is a larger atom with lower electronegativity than oxygen or fluorine, meaning it cannot create the same strength of localized positive charge on the attached hydrogen, so H2S does not exhibit meaningful hydrogen bonding the way water and hydrogen fluoride do — this difference is also why water has an unusually high boiling point compared to H2S despite being a lighter molecule.
Q107. As per agreement with a bank, a businessman had to refund a loan in some equal installments without interest. After paying 18 installments he found that 60% of his loan was refunded. How many installments were there in the agreement?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 30
(D) 33
Answer: (C) 30
Explanation: Shortcut: if paying 18 equal instalments has covered 60% of the total loan, then each individual instalment must be worth exactly 60% ÷ 18 = (60/18)% = (10/3)% of the total loan value. To find the total number of instalments needed to reach the full 100% of the loan, simply divide: 100 ÷ (10/3) = 100 × (3/10) = 30 total instalments — a quick proportional method that avoids setting up and solving a more elaborate algebraic loan-repayment equation.
Q108. What is the SHANTI Act, 2025?
(A) Super Hydrated Anti Natal Transformed India (SHANTI) Act, 2025
(B) Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025
(C) Sustained Harnessed and Advanced Nuke Engineering for Transformed India (SHANTI) Act, 2025
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025
Explanation: The SHANTI Act, 2025 (Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India Act) is a piece of Indian legislation that replaced the older Atomic Energy Act of 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act of 2010, with the specific policy goal of opening up India’s previously government-monopolized civil nuclear power sector to private-sector investment and participation, reflecting a significant shift in India’s nuclear energy policy framework.
Q109. The length of a rectangle is decreased by 20% while the breadth is increased by 20%. Then the area of the rectangle will:
(A) remain unchanged.
(B) decrease by 4%.
(C) increase by 2%.
(D) increase by 4%.
Answer: (B) decrease by 4%.
Explanation: Shortcut: for problems involving a percentage decrease in one dimension and a percentage increase in another (like length and breadth of a rectangle), the new area can be found quickly by multiplying the respective multiplying factors together, rather than assuming the percentage changes simply cancel out. A 20% decrease in length means multiplying by 0.8, and a 20% increase in breadth means multiplying by 1.2; multiplying these factors together gives 0.8 × 1.2 = 0.96 of the original area — i.e., a net 4% decrease (not zero change, since percentage increase and decrease of the same magnitude do not fully cancel when applied to a product of two quantities).
Q110. In West Bengal, silk industry is famous in:
(A) Murshidabad
(B) Purulia
(C) Nadia
(D) Howrah
Answer: (A) Murshidabad
Explanation: Murshidabad, a historic district in West Bengal, is widely recognized as the principal traditional centre of the state’s silk industry, known for centuries of silk weaving and production, distinguishing it from Purulia, Nadia, and Howrah, which, while significant districts in their own right, are not specifically identified as West Bengal’s primary silk-industry hub.
Q111. Synapsis occurs during:
(A) Leptotene
(B) Diplotene
(C) Zygotene
(D) Pachytene
Answer: (C) Zygotene
Explanation: During the process of meiotic cell division, Prophase I is subdivided into several distinct stages, one of which — zygotene — is specifically defined by the pairing up of homologous chromosomes (one from each parent) alongside each other, a process called synapsis, which is essential for the later exchange of genetic material. This pairing occurs specifically during zygotene, rather than during leptotene (the earlier stage of chromosome condensation), pachytene (when crossing-over actually happens after pairing), or diplotene (when the paired chromosomes begin to separate again).
Q112. Homage was paid to Thiruvalluvar. Who was he? Why is he famous for?
(A) Thiruvalluvar was a celebrated Tamil poet and philosopher. He wrote Thirukkural, a classical Tamil text of 1,330 short couplets (kurals).
(B) Thiruvalluvar was a celebrated Tamil poet and philosopher.
(C) Thiruvalluvar was a King of Chola dynasty. He conquered Ceylon.
(D) Thiruvalluvar was court poet of Rajaraja-I. He wrote several poems on contemporary subject.
Answer: (A) Thiruvalluvar was a celebrated Tamil poet and philosopher. He wrote Thirukkural, a classical Tamil text of 1,330 short couplets (kurals).
Explanation: Thiruvalluvar is celebrated as one of the most important figures in classical Tamil literature — a poet and philosopher whose most famous and enduring work is the Thirukkural, a text comprising 1,330 short, pithy couplets (called kurals) that offer moral and philosophical guidance on ethics, governance, and love. This straightforward, historically accurate description distinguishes him from the inaccurate or fictional alternatives offered (being a Chola king who conquered Ceylon, or a court poet of Rajaraja-I), which do not correspond to the real, well-documented historical figure of Thiruvalluvar.
Q113. Which one of the following is included in acquiring foreign citizenship?
(A) Article 7
(B) Article 8
(C) Article 9
(D) Article 10
Answer: (C) Article 9
Explanation: Article 9 of the Indian Constitution specifically addresses the situation where an Indian citizen voluntarily takes up citizenship of a foreign country; under this article, such a person automatically ceases to be recognized as a citizen of India, since Indian law generally does not permit dual citizenship. This is different from Articles 7, 8, and 10, which deal with other, related but distinct aspects of Indian citizenship, such as citizenship of persons who migrated to Pakistan or citizenship rights of persons of Indian origin residing outside India.
Q114. Which one of the following is included in secondary sector from the standpoint of sources of national income?
(A) Trade
(B) Transport
(C) Communication
(D) Construction
Answer: (D) Construction
Explanation: In classifying an economy’s sectors by the nature of activity, Construction — the process of physically building infrastructure, housing, and other structures — is categorized under the secondary sector, alongside manufacturing and industry. Trade, Transport, and Communication, on the other hand, are all classified under the tertiary (services) sector, since they involve the distribution, movement, or exchange of goods and information rather than the direct physical production or construction of goods.
Q115. How many members should at least be there in a Club so that it is guaranteed that at least two members have the same month of birth?
(A) 3
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 24
Answer: (C) 13
Explanation: Shortcut: this is a classic application of the Pigeonhole Principle, which states that if you have more items than available “pigeonholes” (categories), at least one pigeonhole must contain more than one item. Since there are only 12 possible birth months, it is entirely possible for 12 club members to each have a different, unique birth month with no overlap at all. However, the moment a 13th member joins, there are no remaining unused months left for them to occupy uniquely, so they must necessarily share a birth month with one of the existing 12 members — making 13 the minimum number of members needed to GUARANTEE at least one shared birth month, a conclusion reached through direct logical reasoning rather than probability calculation.
Q116. Wind Energy Project was set up in West Bengal at:
(A) Bakkhali
(B) Frezerganj
(C) Digha
(D) Haldia
Answer: (B) Frezerganj
Explanation: West Bengal’s dedicated wind energy project is situated at Frezerganj (more commonly spelled Fraserganj), a coastal location within the South 24 Parganas district, chosen for this project due to its favourable coastal wind conditions, rather than at Bakkhali, Digha, or Haldia, which are other well-known coastal or industrial locations in the state but are not the specific site of this wind energy installation.
Q117. Krishna Raja Sagar dam and Mettur dam are built across the river:
(A) Krishna
(B) Cauvery (Kaveri)
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Godavari
Answer: (B) Cauvery (Kaveri)
Explanation: Both the Krishna Raja Sagar (KRS) dam, located in Karnataka, and the Mettur dam, located further downstream in Tamil Nadu, are built across the same major river system — the Cauvery (also spelled Kaveri) — which flows through both states and has historically been a subject of significant inter-state water-sharing disputes, rather than being built across the Krishna, Mahanadi, or Godavari rivers, which are separate, unrelated river systems in India.
Q118. 2x − 3y = −12 and x/y = 3/4, what is the value of x and y?
(A) x = 6, y = 9
(B) x = 6, y = 8
(C) x = 4, y = 3
(D) x = 8, y = 4
Answer: (B) x = 6, y = 8
Explanation: Shortcut: rather than testing each answer option by substitution, solve directly using the given ratio to eliminate one variable early. From x/y = 3/4, we can express x = (3/4)y = 3y/4. Substituting this directly into the other equation, 2x − 3y = −12, gives 2(3y/4) − 3y = −12, i.e., (3y/2) − 3y = −12, which simplifies to −(3y/2) = −12, so y = 8. Substituting back, x = 3(8)/4 = 6 — a method of eliminating one variable via substitution that is generally faster and less error-prone than testing each multiple-choice pair of values one at a time.
Q119. Which of the following elements, available adequately in India, can be used to produce the nuclear power?
(A) Actinium
(B) Neptunium
(C) Copper
(D) Thorium
Answer: (D) Thorium
Explanation: India possesses some of the world’s largest reserves of thorium, contained within monazite sand deposits found particularly along its coastlines. This abundant domestic resource is the central pillar of India’s long-term, indigenously designed three-stage nuclear power programme, which is specifically structured to eventually rely heavily on thorium-based reactors — a strategic choice not similarly available with actinium, neptunium, or copper, none of which are relevant nuclear fuel resources abundant within India.
Q120. Formula of the Chloride of an element M is MCl4 and its Molecular weight is 154 (Cl = 35.5). The molecular weight of its oxide is:
(A) 64
(B) 72
(C) 44
(D) 40
Answer: (C) 44
Explanation: Shortcut: given the chloride formula MCl4 with a known total molecular weight of 154, and knowing the atomic weight of chlorine (Cl = 35.5), first isolate the unknown element’s atomic weight by simple subtraction: M + 4(35.5) = 154 → M + 142 = 154 → M = 12, which corresponds to carbon. Knowing this, the oxide of the same element with formula MO2 (following the same tetravalent pattern as the chloride) has a molecular weight of M + 2(16) = 12 + 32 = 44 — solved cleanly in two short steps once the pattern of the chloride formula is used to first identify the unknown element.
Q121. Who drafted the Congress Enquiry Committee Report on the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
(A) Chittaranjan Das
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Saifuddin Kitchlew
Answer: (C) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: The Punjab (Congress) Enquiry Committee, formed to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre of 1919 independently of the official British government inquiry, included several senior nationalist leaders such as Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, Abbas Tyabji, and M.R. Jayakar as its members; however, the final written report of this committee was specifically drafted and authored by Mahatma Gandhi himself, distinguishing his particular authorship role from the broader committee membership.
Q122. Who among the following paid his soldiers in cash?
(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin
(C) Muhammad Bin Tuglaq
(D) Iltutmish
Answer: (B) Alauddin
Explanation: Alauddin Khalji, a powerful and administratively innovative Delhi Sultanate ruler, introduced the practice of paying his soldiers directly in cash, as part of a broader package of military and market reforms that also included strict price controls on essential goods and the “dagh” (horse branding) and “chehra” (descriptive roll) systems to prevent fraud within his army — reforms specifically associated with his reign rather than with Balban, Iltutmish, or Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, who ruled at different periods and pursued different administrative policies.
Q123. Who founded Himalayan Institute of Alternatives (HIAL)? Why it is famous for?
(A) Tenzing Norgey. Holistic development of Himalayan Area.
(B) Sonam Wangchuk & Gitanjali J. Angmo. HIAL desires to address the educational and developmental challenges unique to Ladakh’s exceptional geographical and cultural context.
(C) Phunsukh Wangdu. Cultural development of Leh region.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) Sonam Wangchuk & Gitanjali J. Angmo. HIAL desires to address the educational and developmental challenges unique to Ladakh’s exceptional geographical and cultural context.
Explanation: The Himalayan Institute of Alternatives (HIAL), based in Ladakh, was founded by the well-known innovator and education reformer Sonam Wangchuk, together with his collaborator Gitanjali J. Angmo, with the specific mission of addressing educational and developmental challenges uniquely faced by the Ladakh region, given its distinctive high-altitude geography and cultural context — a real-world initiative distinct from the fictional or unrelated names offered as distractors (Tenzing Norgey, being a mountaineer rather than an educational institution founder, and Phunsukh Wangdu, a fictional character loosely inspired by Wangchuk in a popular film).
Q124. Boundary between the greater and the lesser Himalaya is known as
(A) Main Boundary Thrust
(B) Main Central Thrust
(C) Main Mantle Thrust
(D) Main Frontal Thrust
Answer: (B) Main Central Thrust
Explanation: The Himalayan mountain system is geologically divided into distinct parallel ranges, and the specific fault-line boundary separating the Greater Himalaya (the highest, northernmost range) from the Lesser Himalaya (the intermediate range to its south) is known as the Main Central Thrust (MCT). This is distinct from the Main Boundary Thrust, which instead separates the Lesser Himalaya from the Shivalik range further south, and the Main Frontal Thrust, which separates the Shivaliks from the plains beyond — three separate but related geological boundary lines within the same broader mountain system.
Q125. The film ‘Ek Ruka Hua Faisla’ (1986) directed by Sri Basu Chatterjee was adopted from a 1957 American film ’12 Angry Men’. Recently it was adopted as a play in Bengali language. Which group has adopted it and what is the name of the play?
(A) Nandikar, Ek Theke Baro
(B) Sayak, Kundubabu
(C) Rangakarmee, Rudali
(D) Natasena, Fata Gopal
Answer: (A) Nandikar, Ek Theke Baro
Explanation: The classic 1957 American courtroom drama “12 Angry Men,” which itself inspired the 1986 Hindi film “Ek Ruka Hua Faisla,” was later adapted into a stage play in the Bengali language by the well-known Kolkata-based theatre group Nandikar, who titled their Bengali version “Ek Theke Baro” (meaning “One to Twelve”), rather than the adaptation being attributed to other theatre groups like Sayak or Rangakarmee, which have produced different, unrelated plays.
Q126. The leader of the Eka movement was:
(A) Birsa Munda
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Madari Pasi
(D) A. N. Sinha
Answer: (C) Madari Pasi
Explanation: The Eka (meaning “Unity”) movement was a significant peasant agitation that took place in the Awadh region during 1921–22, focused on resisting oppressive rents, illegal exactions, and forced labour demanded by landlords, and was specifically led by Madari Pasi, distinguishing this particular regional peasant movement from other tribal or national movements led by figures like Birsa Munda or Annie Besant, who were active in different contexts.
Q127. India has officially set its net-zero Carbon Emission target for the year _____.
(A) 2050
(B) 2060
(C) 2100
(D) 2070
Answer: (D) 2070
Explanation: India formally announced its commitment to achieving net-zero carbon emissions — meaning balancing whatever greenhouse gases it emits with an equivalent amount removed from the atmosphere — by the target year of 2070, a pledge made public at the COP26 international climate summit, positioning India’s target timeline as somewhat later than the earlier net-zero deadlines (like 2050) adopted by many developed nations.
Q128. If 14 gm of N2 has ‘n’ number of molecules, how many molecules are present in 46 gm NO2?
(A) n
(B) 2n
(C) n/2
(D) 3n/2
Answer: (B) 2n
Explanation: Shortcut: use the mole concept directly rather than working through Avogadro’s number explicitly. Nitrogen gas (N2) has a molar mass of 28 g/mol, so 14 g of N2 represents exactly half a mole (14/28 = 0.5 mol), meaning this half-mole quantity contains ‘n’ molecules — implying that one FULL mole of any substance therefore contains 2n molecules. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) has a molar mass of 46 g/mol, so 46 g of NO2 is exactly one full mole, and by the relationship just established, one full mole contains 2n molecules — solved by recognizing simple whole-number mole ratios rather than calculating Avogadro’s number directly.
Q129. Which one of the following is not the anti-inflationary measure in India?
(A) Curbing disposable income of the people
(B) Checking black markets
(C) Tax reform
(D) Increase in money supply
Answer: (D) Increase in money supply
Explanation: Anti-inflationary measures are policy tools specifically designed to reduce or control rising prices in an economy — such as reducing people’s disposable income to lower demand, cracking down on black markets and hoarding (which artificially inflate prices), or implementing tax reforms to manage demand and revenue more efficiently. Increasing the money supply, however, works in the opposite direction: pumping more money into an economy without a corresponding increase in goods and services tends to push prices UP, making it an inflationary measure rather than an anti-inflationary one, and therefore the correct answer to this “which one is NOT” question.
Q130. While a car is moving on a straight road, a GPS map is showing ‘North’ in the bottom right hand corner. In which direction will it be travelling after it turns 90° to left?
(A) West
(B) South-East
(C) South
(D) North-West
Answer: (B) South-East
Explanation: Shortcut: on a standard map, North conventionally points “up.” If a GPS display instead shows North positioned at the bottom-right corner of the screen, this means the map has effectively been rotated so that the car’s actual direction of travel (which always corresponds to the “top” of the screen in a moving-vehicle GPS view) corresponds to the real-world compass direction of South-West (roughly 225°, diametrically opposite to where North now appears). Turning 90° to the left from a South-West heading means subtracting 90° from 225°, landing at 135°, which corresponds to South-East on a standard compass — solved by treating the GPS orientation as simply a rotated compass, rather than trying to visualize the car and map separately.
Q131. What is the Full Form of BRICS? How many Members are there in BRICS?
(A) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. It is an intergovernmental organization comprising of fourteen countries.
(B) Brazil, Romania, India, China and Sri Lanka. It is an intergovernmental organization comprising of five countries.
(C) Brazil, Russia, India, China & South Africa. It is an intergovernmental organization comprising of eleven countries.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C) Brazil, Russia, India, China & South Africa. It is an intergovernmental organization comprising of eleven countries.
Explanation: BRICS, originally an acronym for the founding five members — Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa — has since expanded its membership considerably. As of the current official listings, BRICS includes eleven full member countries in total: the original five founders plus Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE (added in 2024), along with Indonesia (added in 2025) — though a few sources count only ten members by excluding Saudi Arabia specifically, making the precise figure a matter of some minor ongoing dispute depending on the source consulted.
Q132. Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B at a distance of 160 km. They start at the same time 8:10 am. If the speeds of the cars are 50 km/hour and 30 km/hour respectively, they will meet each other at:
(A) 10:10 am
(B) 10:30 am
(C) 11:10 am
(D) 11:20 am
Answer: (A) 10:10 am
Explanation: Shortcut: for two objects starting simultaneously from opposite ends of a fixed distance and moving toward each other, the two speeds simply ADD together to give the rate at which the gap between them closes (their “relative speed” of approach), rather than needing to track each car’s position separately over time. Here, the combined closing speed is 50 + 30 = 80 km/h, and since the total distance to be covered together is 160 km, the time taken to meet is 160 ÷ 80 = 2 hours. Adding this 2-hour travel time to the given 8:10 am start time gives a meeting time of exactly 10:10 am.
Q133. Kartiki Gonsalves & Guneet Monga won ‘Oscar’ in 2023 for the Best Documentary (Short Subject). What was the name of the documentary?
(A) The Postman Always Rings Twice
(B) The Elephant Whisperers
(C) The Perfect Murder
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) The Elephant Whisperers
Explanation: “The Elephant Whisperers,” a documentary short film centred on the caretakers of orphaned elephant calves in southern India, won the Academy Award (Oscar) for Best Documentary Short Subject at the 2023 ceremony, with producers Kartiki Gonsalves and Guneet Monga receiving the award — a specific, factual piece of recent film history distinguishing it from the other, unrelated or fictional film titles offered as options.
Q134. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood?
(A) Hepatic portal veins
(B) Pulmonary veins
(C) Renal veins
(D) Pulmonary artery
Answer: (B) Pulmonary veins
Explanation: Pulmonary veins are a notable and often-tested exception to the general rule that veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart: they specifically carry freshly OXYGENATED blood from the lungs directly into the heart’s left atrium, ready to be pumped out to the rest of the body. This is the reverse situation to the pulmonary artery (which, unusually for an artery, carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart toward the lungs), while other veins like hepatic portal veins and renal veins carry deoxygenated blood in the normal, expected direction typical of most veins in the body.
Q135. Dehradun is the capital city of Uttarakhand. What does ‘dun’ (also spelled ‘doon’) signify here?
(A) A valley between Lesser Himalaya and Shivalik
(B) An apple orchard
(C) Fertile land
(D) Silted-up lake in Shivalik
Answer: (A) A valley between Lesser Himalaya and Shivalik
Explanation: In the geographic and geological vocabulary of the Himalayan foothill region, the term “dun” (or its variant spelling, “doon”) specifically refers to a type of longitudinal valley formed between the Lesser Himalayan range to the north and the Shivalik range to the south — a distinctive landform type of which the Dehradun valley (home to Uttarakhand’s capital city) is the most famous example, giving the city its very name, rather than the term referring to an orchard, general fertile land, or a lake, as the other options suggest.
Q136. Who was the Governor-General of Bengal when the Asiatic Society was founded?
(A) Warren Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Wellesley
(D) Lord Clive
Answer: (A) Warren Hastings
Explanation: The Asiatic Society, a pioneering academic institution established to promote research into Indian history, culture, and languages, was founded in Calcutta in 1784 by the British orientalist scholar Sir William Jones, during the period when Warren Hastings was serving as the Governor-General of Bengal — placing the founding of this significant scholarly institution specifically within Hastings’s tenure rather than during the later governance of Cornwallis, Wellesley, or the earlier tenure of Clive.
Q137. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability?
(A) Article 17
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 21
Answer: (A) Article 17
Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution explicitly abolishes the practice of untouchability in any form and prohibits its enforcement, treating any such discriminatory practice as a punishable offence under law — a specific and direct constitutional provision distinguishing it from Articles 18, 19, and 21, which address entirely different matters, such as the abolition of titles, protection of certain freedoms, and protection of life and personal liberty respectively.
Q138. Which has become the first country to recognize the Taliban Government in Afghanistan?
(A) India
(B) Iran
(C) Russia
(D) China
Answer: (C) Russia
Explanation: On 3 July 2025, Russia became the first country in the world to formally and officially extend diplomatic recognition to the Taliban government currently controlling Afghanistan, a notable and specific development in recent international diplomacy, distinguishing Russia’s position from other countries such as India, Iran, or China, which, despite maintaining various levels of engagement with the Taliban administration, had not taken this particular formal step of recognition.
Q139. Name the town that is located on the bank of Karola river.
(A) Malda
(B) Jalpaiguri
(C) Darjeeling
(D) Baharampur
Answer: (B) Jalpaiguri
Explanation: The town of Jalpaiguri, located in northern West Bengal, is situated on the bank of the Karala (also spelled Karola) river, in addition to being near the larger Teesta river — a specific geographic detail distinguishing it from Malda, Darjeeling, or Baharampur, which are situated near different rivers or in different parts of the state.
Q140. Which period in India is known as Plan Holiday?
(A) 1961-1966
(B) 1965-1966
(C) 1966-1969
(D) 1966-1974
Answer: (C) 1966-1969
Explanation: The period from 1966 to 1969, during which the Indian government implemented three separate one-year “Annual Plans” in place of a full new Five-Year Plan (following the conclusion of the Third Five-Year Plan), is specifically referred to in India’s economic planning history as the “Plan Holiday” — a term reflecting the temporary pause in the usual five-year planning cycle during a period of economic and political stress (including wars and droughts), distinct from the other date ranges listed, which do not correspond to this specific planning gap.
Q141. India has recently launched a nationwide campaign for free HPV vaccination. The goal of this vaccination is to combat:
(A) Cervical cancer in women
(B) Prostate cancer in men
(C) Lung cancer
(D) Breast cancer
Answer: (A) Cervical cancer in women
Explanation: India’s recent nationwide free HPV (Human Papillomavirus) vaccination campaign is specifically targeted at preventing cervical cancer in women, since persistent infection with certain strains of HPV is recognized as the primary underlying cause of most cervical cancer cases — a public health goal distinct from prostate cancer, lung cancer, or breast cancer, which have different causes and are not the specific focus of this HPV-based vaccination drive.
Q142. Which one among the following is not a Sunrise Sector in India?
(A) Food Processing
(B) Textile
(C) Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Information Technology (IT)
(D) Space Technology
Answer: (B) Textile
Explanation: “Sunrise sectors” refer to newly emerging or rapidly growing industries with high future economic potential, such as Artificial Intelligence/IT, food processing (given its strong recent growth potential in India), and space technology, all of which are considered relatively new, high-growth areas. Textile, by contrast, is one of India’s oldest and most well-established traditional industries, with a long history dating back centuries, making it the one sector among these options that does NOT fit the “emerging, high-growth” definition of a sunrise sector.
Q143. Select the shape which is different from the rest:
(A) Square
(B) Circle
(C) Triangle
(D) Rectangle
Answer: (B) Circle
Explanation: A circle is fundamentally different in geometric category from a square, triangle, or rectangle, because it has no straight edges or corners (vertices) at all — it is a continuously curved shape defined by a constant radius from a central point. The other three shapes listed are all polygons, meaning they are made up of straight line segments joined at distinct corner points, placing the circle in a completely separate geometric category and making it the clear odd one out.
Q144. The name ‘Operation Polo’ referred to the military operations to integrate which princely state within the Indian Union?
(A) Kashmir
(B) Junagadh
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Jodhpur
Answer: (C) Hyderabad
Explanation: “Operation Polo” was the military codename given to the Indian Army’s action in September 1948, which resulted in the integration of the large princely state of Hyderabad — whose ruler, the Nizam, had initially resisted joining either India or Pakistan after independence — into the Indian Union, distinguishing this specific military operation from separate, differently-named processes used to integrate other princely states like Kashmir, Junagadh, or Jodhpur.
Q145. Which amendment made written advice of Cabinet mandatory for Emergency declaration?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 52nd Amendment
(C) 86th Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
Answer: (D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: The 44th Constitutional Amendment, passed in 1978 in response to concerns arising from the earlier Emergency period (1975–77), introduced several important safeguards, including the requirement that the President can only proclaim a National Emergency after receiving the Cabinet’s advice in writing, rather than acting on the advice of the Prime Minister alone — a specific procedural safeguard introduced by this particular amendment, distinguishing it from the 42nd, 52nd, or 86th Amendments, which addressed different constitutional matters altogether.
Q146. The Indian Sangita Samaj was founded by:
(A) Rajanikanta Sen
(B) Jyotirindranath Tagore
(C) Dwijendralal Roy
(D) Sourindro Mohun Tagore
Answer: (B) Jyotirindranath Tagore
Explanation: The Indian Sangita Samaj (Indian Music Society), founded in Calcutta in 1897, was established by Jyotirindranath Tagore — the elder brother of the more widely known poet Rabindranath Tagore — as an institution dedicated to promoting Indian classical music, theatre, and broader cultural activities during the culturally vibrant period of the Bengal Renaissance, a founding role specifically attributed to Jyotirindranath rather than to the other cultural figures listed, such as Dwijendralal Roy or Sourindro Mohun Tagore, who made separate contributions to Indian music and culture.
Q147. What is the study and analysis of Coins known as?
(A) Coinography
(B) Epigraphy
(C) Numismatics
(D) Calligraphy
Answer: (C) Numismatics
Explanation: Numismatics is the formal academic term for the specialized study and analysis of coins, currency, and related monetary objects — including their history, production, and cultural significance — distinct from epigraphy (the study of inscriptions), calligraphy (the art of decorative handwriting), or the invented, non-standard term “coinography.”
Q148. Which of the following is not a UNESCO world heritage site?
(A) Ellora caves
(B) Kaziranga National Park
(C) Churches and convents of Goa
(D) Gateway of India
Answer: (D) Gateway of India
Explanation: Among the sites listed, Ellora Caves, Kaziranga National Park, and the Churches and Convents of Goa are all officially inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites, recognized for their outstanding cultural, historical, or natural significance. The Gateway of India, despite being an iconic and historically significant monument in Mumbai, has not been granted this specific UNESCO designation, making it the one option that is NOT a World Heritage Site among those listed.
Q149. Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in 2 minutes. What is the length of the train?
(A) 250 m
(B) 500 m
(C) 1000 m
(D) 1500 m
Answer: (B) 500 m
Explanation: Shortcut: rather than dealing with distances and lengths separately in different steps, convert everything to a single consistent unit of measurement from the very start. A speed of 60 km/h converts to exactly 1000 metres per minute; over a travel time of 2 minutes, the train (including both its own length and the tunnel) collectively covers 1000 × 2 = 2000 metres total. Since the tunnel itself measures 1.5 km (1500 m), subtracting this from the total distance covered leaves 2000 − 1500 = 500 metres as the length of the train alone — solved by treating “distance covered while passing through a tunnel” as train-length plus tunnel-length, a standard shortcut technique for this entire category of “train through tunnel” problems.
Q150. Consider the following pairs (District — Trees found in natural state): (I) Bankura — Sal; (II) South 24 Parganas — Sundari; (III) Cooch Behar — Pine; (IV) Purba Medinipur — Baobab. How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation: Checking each district-tree pairing against actual ecological/geographic facts: Bankura is indeed known for its natural Sal forests, and South 24 Parganas is indeed home to natural Sundari (mangrove) forests — both of these pairings are correct. However, pine forests in West Bengal are naturally found in the higher-altitude Darjeeling hills, not in Cooch Behar, and baobab trees (which are not native to West Bengal at all, being more characteristic of Africa/parts of Gujarat) are not a natural feature of Purba Medinipur — making these latter two pairings incorrect, and leaving exactly two of the four pairs (I and II) correctly matched.
Q151. Who played the role of a mediator leading to the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
(A) Motilal Nehru
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(D) Chintamani Panigrahi
Answer: (C) Tej Bahadur Sapru
Explanation: In the lead-up to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of March 1931 — a significant agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and the British Viceroy, Lord Irwin, which led to the temporary suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement — the Liberal political leader Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru (working alongside M.R. Jayakar) played a crucial behind-the-scenes role as an intermediary, helping to facilitate communication and negotiation between the two sides, a specific mediating role distinct from the other political figures listed, who were not the primary mediators in this particular negotiation.
Q152. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by
(A) Ten Degree Channel
(B) Five Degree Channel
(C) Eight Degree Channel
(D) Zero Degree Channel
Answer: (A) Ten Degree Channel
Explanation: The Ten Degree Channel, a body of water running along the 10° North latitude line, forms the natural geographic dividing line separating the Andaman Islands (positioned to its north) from the Nicobar Islands (positioned to its south) — a specific channel distinguishable from the separately-named Eight Degree Channel (which instead separates Lakshadweep from the Maldives) and the Nine Degree Channel (which separates Minicoy from the rest of the Lakshadweep island group).
Q153. Who introduced the Ryotwari settlement in Madras?
(A) Charles Metcalfe
(B) Thomas Munro
(C) John Malcolm
(D) Mountstuart Elphinstone
Answer: (B) Thomas Munro
Explanation: Sir Thomas Munro is specifically credited with introducing the Ryotwari System of land revenue collection in the Madras Presidency, a system under which the colonial government established a direct revenue settlement arrangement with individual peasant cultivators (called “ryots”), rather than working through intermediary zamindars (landlords) as was done under a different system elsewhere in British India — a policy specifically associated with Munro rather than with Charles Metcalfe, John Malcolm, or Mountstuart Elphinstone, who are associated with related but distinct administrative reforms in other regions.
Q154. Which word is not formed from the word ‘RABBIT’ to form a meaningful word?
(A) RAT
(B) BAT
(C) BAG
(D) BIT
Answer: (C) BAG
Explanation: Shortcut: for word-formation puzzles, first write out every distinct letter available in the source word, then simply check whether each candidate word’s letters are all present in that list. The word “RABBIT” contains the letters R, A, B, B, I, T (note there are two B’s available). Checking each option: “RAT” uses R, A, T (all present); “BAT” uses B, A, T (all present); “BIT” uses B, I, T (all present); but “BAG” requires a G, which simply does not appear anywhere among RABBIT’s letters, making it the one word that cannot be formed.
Q155. Jaldapara National Park is located in
(A) Jalpaiguri and Alipurduar districts
(B) Alipurduar district
(C) Coochbehar and Jalpaiguri districts
(D) Kalimpong district
Answer: (B) Alipurduar district
Explanation: Jaldapara National Park, well known as a protected habitat for the Indian one-horned rhinoceros, is situated primarily within the Alipurduar district of West Bengal (a district that was carved out of the larger Jalpaiguri district in recent years) — a specific administrative location distinct from the broader or alternative district combinations offered in the other options.
Q156. Which of the following mountain peaks does not belong to the Himalayan Range?
(A) Kamet
(B) K2
(C) Kanchenjungha
(D) Nandadevi
Answer: (B) K2
Explanation: Among the mountain peaks listed, K2 (the world’s second-highest peak) is located within the separate Karakoram mountain range, which, although geographically close to and often discussed alongside the Himalayas, is technically classified as a distinct mountain system. Kamet, Kanchenjungha, and Nanda Devi, by contrast, are all genuinely part of the Himalayan range proper, making K2 the one peak that does not belong to the Himalayas among these options.
Q157. A verdict was delivered by a Seven Judge Bench headed by Hon’ble Chief Justice of India on sub-categorization of Scheduled Castes in 2024. The relevant litigation was between—
(A) E. V. Chinnaiah Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
(B) Indra Sawhney Vs. Union of India
(C) Association for Democratic Reforms Vs. Election Commission of India
(D) Indra Sawhney Vs. Association for Democratic Reforms
Answer: (A) E. V. Chinnaiah Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: In 2024, a Seven Judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India, headed by the then Chief Justice of India, revisited and substantially overruled its own earlier 2004 judgment in the case of E.V. Chinnaiah vs. State of Andhra Pradesh, specifically addressing whether individual state governments have the authority to create further sub-classifications within the broader Scheduled Castes category for the purpose of allocating reservation benefits more equitably among different sub-groups.
Q158. Which one of the following is not the attribute/main function of NABARD?
(A) Apex institution of rural sector development
(B) Promoting integrated rural development
(C) Long-term credit to State Government for share capital of co-operative society
(D) Apex financial institution of industrial credit
Answer: (D) Apex financial institution of industrial credit
Explanation: NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) functions as the apex institution overseeing rural development in India, providing refinancing support, promoting integrated rural development programmes, and extending long-term credit support to state governments for building up cooperative societies’ share capital. However, providing apex financial support specifically for INDUSTRIAL credit is not part of NABARD’s mandate — that role is instead associated with other specialized financial institutions like IDBI or IFCI, making this the one option that does NOT describe NABARD’s actual function.
Q159. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas at
(A) High temperature and high pressure
(B) High pressure and low temperature
(C) Low pressure and high temperature
(D) Low pressure and low temperature
Answer: (C) Low pressure and high temperature
Explanation: According to the kinetic theory of gases, real gases most closely approximate the theoretical behaviour of an “ideal gas” under two specific conditions occurring together: high temperature (where the gas molecules move so fast and are so energetic that weak intermolecular attractive forces between them become negligible in their effect) and low pressure (where the gas molecules are spread far enough apart that their own physical volume becomes negligible compared to the total volume of their container) — a combination of conditions distinct from high pressure or low temperature, under which real-gas behaviour actually deviates MORE from ideal predictions.
Q160. Babur’s famous autobiography ‘Baburnama’ was translated into Persian by
(A) Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan
(B) Badayuni
(C) Faizi
(D) Gulbadan Begum
Answer: (A) Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan
Explanation: Babur’s celebrated autobiography, the “Baburnama,” was originally composed by the Mughal emperor himself in his native Chagatai Turkish language. It was later translated into Persian — the dominant literary and administrative language of the Mughal court — during the reign of Emperor Akbar, with the translation specifically carried out by the nobleman and poet Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan, distinguishing this translation work from other Mughal-era scholars like Badayuni or Faizi, who undertook separate literary projects.
Q161. How many hymns are there in the Rigveda?
(A) 1017
(B) 1028
(C) 1128
(D) 1228
Answer: (B) 1028
Explanation: The Rigveda, the oldest of the four Vedas and one of the foundational texts of ancient Indian religious and literary tradition, is organized into 10 books (called Mandalas), which together contain a total of 1028 individual hymns (called Suktas), comprising roughly 10,600 verses in total — a specific, precisely documented textual structure rather than any of the other hymn-count figures offered as close but incorrect distractors.
Q162. Which Buddhist text provides an account of the 16 Mahajanapadas of the 6th century B.C.?
(A) Tripitaka
(B) Dipavamsa
(C) Digha Nikaya
(D) Anguttara Nikaya
Answer: (D) Anguttara Nikaya
Explanation: The historical concept of the “16 Mahajanapadas” — a group of powerful ancient Indian kingdoms and republics that existed around the 6th century BCE — is specifically documented in the Anguttara Nikaya, one of the texts within the Sutta Pitaka portion of the Buddhist Pali Canon, making this Buddhist scripture the standard historical source cited for this information, rather than the Tripitaka (the broader canon that includes the Anguttara Nikaya as one part), the Dipavamsa (a different Sri Lankan chronicle), or the Digha Nikaya (a separate collection of longer discourses).
Q163. Growth inhibiting hormone of plant is
(A) Auxin
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Abscisic acid
Answer: (D) Abscisic acid
Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) is often referred to as the plant “stress hormone” because it plays a key role in helping plants cope with unfavourable environmental conditions (such as drought) by inhibiting active growth and promoting states of dormancy — functioning in essentially the opposite direction to hormones like auxin, gibberellin, and cytokinin, all three of which generally act to actively promote and stimulate plant growth and development.
Q164. The editor of the journal ‘Karmayogin’ was
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Siri Kumar Ghosh
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: (A) Aurobindo Ghosh
Explanation: Sri Aurobindo (originally known as Aurobindo Ghosh before his later spiritual transformation) took on the role of editor for the English-language weekly journal “Karmayogin,” which he launched following his release after the Alipore Bomb Case trial in 1909; around the same period, he also edited a separate, Bengali-language journal called “Dharma,” reflecting his dual engagement with both English and Bengali nationalist journalism during this phase of his public life.
Q165. Who among the following persons wrote a biography of Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Richard Gregg
(B) Louis Fischer
(C) Web Miller
(D) Pat Hendricks
Answer: (B) Louis Fischer
Explanation: Louis Fischer, an American journalist who had extensive direct personal access to and interactions with Mahatma Gandhi, authored the widely read and frequently cited biography titled “The Life of Mahatma Gandhi,” which remains one of the most well-known English-language biographical accounts of Gandhi’s life, distinguishing his authorship from the other names listed, who, while connected to Gandhi’s broader legacy in various ways, are not credited with writing this particular major biography.
Q166. Consider the following statements: (I) Finance Commission is a Constitutional Body. (II) National Commission for Women is a Statutory Body. Which option is correct?
(A) Only (I)
(B) Only (II)
(C) Both (I) and (II)
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (C) Both (I) and (II)
Explanation: Both parts of this compound question hold up under scrutiny: the Finance Commission is indeed established as a constitutional body directly under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, giving it explicit constitutional status; and the National Commission for Women, though not mentioned in the Constitution itself, was instead created through an ordinary Act of Parliament (the National Commission for Women Act, 1990), which is precisely what makes it a “statutory body” rather than a constitutional one — since both individual statements are factually accurate, the correct overall answer is that both (I) and (II) are correct.
Q167. The leader of the Khakar movement was
(A) M. A. Jinnah
(B) Inayatullah Khan Mashriqi
(C) Swami Shraddhanand
(D) M. A. Jayakar
Answer: (B) Inayatullah Khan Mashriqi
Explanation: The Khaksar Movement (also called Khaksar Tehrik), a disciplined socio-political reform movement founded in Lahore during 1930–31, aimed at ending British colonial rule while simultaneously promoting internal social discipline, self-improvement, and community service among its members, was founded and led by Allama Inayatullah Khan Mashriqi (often referred to simply as Allama Mashriqi), distinguishing this movement and its leader from other prominent political figures of the period, such as Jinnah or Swami Shraddhanand, who led separate, unrelated movements.
Q168. Congress Democratic Party was founded by
(A) Anne Besant
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Motilal Nehru
Answer: (B) B. G. Tilak
Explanation: The Congress Democratic Party, established in 1918, was founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak following his release from a period of imprisonment, with the specific political aim of pursuing constitutional reforms and expanding the degree of self-government available to Indians under continued British rule — a party specifically associated with Tilak’s post-release political activity rather than with the other nationalist leaders listed, such as Annie Besant or Motilal Nehru, who pursued their own, separate political initiatives during roughly the same period.
Q169. Mixed Economy refers to an economy where
(A) both agriculture and industry are equally promoted by the State.
(B) there is co-existence of public sector and private sector.
(C) there is co-existence of foreign firms and domestic firms.
(D) economy is under joint control of elected government and military.
Answer: (B) there is co-existence of public sector and private sector.
Explanation: A “mixed economy” is defined by the simultaneous coexistence of both a public sector (businesses and industries owned or controlled by the government) and a private sector (businesses owned and operated by private individuals or companies) operating together within the same overall economic system — a model that independent India specifically adopted, particularly formalized through the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, rather than the alternative and unrelated definitions offered involving agriculture-versus-industry balance, foreign-versus-domestic firms, or military-civilian joint control.
Q170. The Indian revolutionary leader associated with the revolt of Borbalam in 1915 was
(A) V. S. Phadke
(B) Jatindra Nath Mukherjee
(C) Ajay Samanta
(D) Gadinliu
Answer: (B) Jatindra Nath Mukherjee
Explanation: Jatindra Nath Mukherjee, more popularly remembered by his nickname “Bagha Jatin,” was a revolutionary leader connected to the broader Indo-German Conspiracy during the First World War period, aimed at securing German assistance for the Indian independence movement. He was fatally wounded in an armed encounter with British forces near Balasore in present-day Odisha in 1915 (an episode sometimes referred to as the Battle or Revolt of “Borbalam”), an event and revolutionary connection specifically attributed to him rather than to the other revolutionary figures listed, who were active in different regions or contexts.
Q171. Which incident prompted the appointment of the Hunter Committee?
(A) Uprising of 1857
(B) Partition of Bengal
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Komagata Maru incident
Answer: (C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
Explanation: In the aftermath of the deeply controversial and violent Jallianwala Bagh Massacre of April 1919, the British colonial government moved to establish an official inquiry, formally known as the Disorders Inquiry Committee but more commonly remembered by the name of its chairman as the “Hunter Committee,” specifically tasked with investigating the massacre itself and the broader unrest in Punjab around that time, distinguishing the origin of this particular committee from other unrelated historical events like the 1857 Uprising, the Partition of Bengal, or the Komagata Maru incident.
Q172. Water available for plants within the soil is
(A) Hygroscopic water
(B) Capillary water
(C) Mineral water
(D) Chemically bound water
Answer: (B) Capillary water
Explanation: Soil contains water held in several distinct forms with differing degrees of availability to plants: gravitational water drains away too quickly through the soil under gravity’s pull to be reliably absorbed; hygroscopic water is held so tightly to individual soil particles by molecular forces that plant roots cannot extract it; and chemically bound water is locked into the mineral structure of soil particles themselves, also unavailable. Capillary water, however, is held within the finer pore spaces of soil by capillary action in a way that plant roots CAN access and absorb, making it the primary source of water actually usable by growing plants.
Q173. Indian Topographical Map is published by
(A) Survey of India
(B) Geological Survey of India
(C) Indian Space Research Organization
(D) UGC
Answer: (A) Survey of India
Explanation: The Survey of India (SOI), established originally during the colonial period and continuing today as India’s oldest scientific survey department, functions as the country’s official national mapping agency, responsible for producing and publishing detailed topographical maps used across numerous applications including national defence planning, civil infrastructure engineering, and general geographic research — a specific institutional role distinct from the Geological Survey of India (which focuses on geology and mineral resources), ISRO (space research), or the UGC (higher education regulation).
Q174. Who became the Congress President after the resignation of Subhas Chandra Bose?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Acharya Kripalani
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
Answer: (A) Rajendra Prasad
Explanation: Subhas Chandra Bose was re-elected as Congress President at the 1939 Tripuri Session, but growing ideological and personal differences with the dominant Gandhian faction within the party eventually led him to resign from this position shortly afterward. Following his resignation, Dr. Rajendra Prasad (who would later go on to become independent India’s first President) took over as the next Congress President, distinguishing his succession specifically from the other Congress leaders listed, who held the position at different, unrelated points in the party’s history.
Q175. In which ancient Scripture was the phrase “Tamaso Ma Jyotirgamaya” originally mentioned?
(A) Rig Veda
(B) Bhagavad Gita
(C) Mundak Upanishad
(D) Brihadaranyaka Upanishad
Answer: (D) Brihadaranyaka Upanishad
Explanation: The well-known Sanskrit invocation “Asato Ma Sadgamaya, Tamaso Ma Jyotirgamaya, Mrityor Ma Amritam Gamaya” — a prayer expressing the wish to be led from falsehood to truth, from darkness to light, and from death to immortality — originates specifically from the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad (at verse 1.3.28), one of the oldest and most significant of the principal Upanishads, distinguishing its textual source from the Rig Veda, the Bhagavad Gita, or the Mundak Upanishad, which are separate scriptural texts that do not contain this particular passage.
Q176. Parallel governments during the 1942 Movement were formed in
(A) Ballia
(B) Satara
(C) Talcher
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: During the intense nationwide unrest of the Quit India Movement in 1942, several regions of India saw the temporary emergence of “parallel governments” — locally organized administrative structures set up by nationalists to fill the vacuum left where British authority had been disrupted. Such parallel governments arose independently in multiple different locations, including Ballia in Uttar Pradesh (under the leadership of Chittu Pandey), Satara in Maharashtra (known as the “Prati Sarkar”), and Talcher in Odisha, meaning that all three of the specific places listed genuinely saw this phenomenon occur, making “All of the above” the correct, comprehensive answer.
Q177. Among the following indices which one is not used for the construction of Human Development Index?
(A) Health Index
(B) Price Index
(C) Education Index
(D) Income Index
Answer: (B) Price Index
Explanation: The Human Development Index (HDI), a composite measure used internationally to assess a country’s overall development level, is specifically constructed from three component indices: a Health Index (based on life expectancy at birth), an Education Index (based on measures like expected and average years of schooling), and an Income Index (based on Gross National Income per capita). A separate “Price Index,” which typically measures inflation or cost-of-living changes, is not one of the three components used in calculating HDI, making it the correct answer to this “which is NOT used” question.
Q178. All X-brand cars parked here are white. Some of the have radial tyres. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres. All cars here are not X-brand. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
(A) Cars other than X-brand cannot have radial tyres.
(B) Only white cars are parked here.
(C) Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.
(D) Cars other than X-brand cannot have radial tyres.
Answer: (C) Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.
Explanation: Working through this multi-part logical statement step by step: since ALL X-brand cars parked here are stated to be white, and it is further stated that SOME of these cars have radial tyres, it logically follows that there must be at least some cars that are simultaneously both white AND X-brand AND fitted with radial tyres — precisely capturing the conclusion offered in option C. The other options either cannot be validly derived from the given premises (claiming things about “cars other than X-brand,” which the statements do not actually address) or overstate the conclusion (claiming ALL parked cars are white, when the statements only establish this specifically for X-brand cars, leaving open the possibility of other-coloured non-X-brand cars also being present, given that the fourth statement confirms non-X-brand cars are indeed present here).
Q179. Which element although situated outside the Radioactive series, has radioactive isotope?
(A) Fluorine
(B) Iodine
(C) Chlorine
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: Despite fluorine, chlorine, and iodine all being ordinary, non-radioactive elements in their most common naturally occurring forms (and not part of any dedicated “radioactive series” like uranium or thorium decay chains), each of them does possess certain less common isotopes that are radioactive — for example, Fluorine-18 (used in medical PET imaging), Chlorine-36, and various radioactive Iodine isotopes (like Iodine-131, also used medically) — meaning that all three elements listed genuinely have known radioactive isotopes, making “All of the above” the comprehensive and correct answer.
Q180. Under what authority the President of United States of America can impose tariffs?
(A) Congress passed laws allowing the President to impose tariffs unilaterally for national security reasons.
(B) The Constitution of United States authorizes the President to impose tariff subject to some restrictions.
(C) The President of United States has sweeping powers to impose tariffs to correct the trade imbalance.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) Congress passed laws allowing the President to impose tariffs unilaterally for national security reasons.
Explanation: While the United States Constitution formally assigns the general power to regulate international trade (including tariffs) to Congress rather than to the President directly, over time Congress has passed specific legislation delegating certain limited tariff-related powers to the President under particular defined circumstances — such as invoking national security justifications under Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962, or emergency economic powers under laws like the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) — meaning that presidential tariff authority in practice stems from these specific congressionally-passed delegating laws, rather than from any direct, standalone constitutional grant of power or an unrestricted, unilateral presidential authority.
Q181. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between the Union and the States under the Constitution of India?
(A) India follows a completely federal system.
(B) India follows a completely unitary system.
(C) India has a quasi-federal system with a strong Centre.
(D) States have more power than the Centre.
Answer: (C) India has a quasi-federal system with a strong Centre.
Explanation: India’s constitutional framework combines significant federal characteristics — such as a clear, written division of legislative powers between the Union and the States across detailed lists in the Seventh Schedule, along with an independent judiciary — together with strong unitary/centralizing features, including special emergency provisions (Articles 352, 356, 360), the President’s power to appoint State Governors, and the Union’s authority to alter state boundaries unilaterally. This particular blend has led legal scholars (notably K.C. Wheare) and the Supreme Court itself to describe India’s system as “quasi-federal,” meaning federal in form but with a pronounced tilt of power toward the central government, rather than being a purely federal, purely unitary, or state-dominant system.
Q182. ‘The Notes on Infant Marriage and Enforced Widowhood’ was written by
(A) Behramji Malabari
(B) Jyotiba Phule
(C) Mahadeb Ranade
(D) Dadoba Pandurang
Answer: (A) Behramji Malabari
Explanation: Behramji Merwanji Malabari, a Parsi social reformer, poet, and journalist active in late nineteenth-century India, authored the influential pamphlet titled “Notes on Infant Marriage and Enforced Widowhood” in 1884, in which he powerfully highlighted the social harms caused by child marriage and the forced widowhood faced by young Hindu widows, generating widespread public debate that became a significant catalyst contributing to the eventual passage of the Age of Consent Act in 1891 — a specific reformist contribution distinct from the other social reformers listed, such as Jyotiba Phule or Mahadev Ranade, who worked on related but separate reform causes.
Q183. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Right to Privacy’ in India?
(A) It is a statutory right enacted by Parliament of India.
(B) It is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India.
(C) It is a fundamental right recognised by the Supreme Court of India.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (C) It is a fundamental right recognised by the Supreme Court of India.
Explanation: In the landmark 2017 judgment in the case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously and definitively ruled that the Right to Privacy is protected as a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Indian Constitution, deriving its foundation primarily from Article 21 (the right to life and personal liberty) and further reinforced by connections to Articles 14 and 19. While it is technically also true that the term “privacy” is not explicitly written out anywhere in the Constitution’s actual text, the more complete, legally and constitutionally significant description of the Right to Privacy today is that it has been judicially recognized as a Fundamental Right by the Supreme Court, making this the most accurate overall characterization among the given options.
Q184. Identify the incorrect statement about ongoing Ukraine-Russia War.
(A) Russia has occupied Ukrainian territories in the Luhansk and Donetsk regions also known as the Donbas.
(B) The war started in February, 2022.
(C) Russian invasion of Ukraine was driven by a desire to stop its integration into Western alliances (NATO/EU).
(D) Crimea has been taken over by Russian forces from Ukraine during the current war.
Answer: (D) Crimea has been taken over by Russian forces from Ukraine during the current war.
Explanation: Regarding the ongoing Russia-Ukraine conflict, most of the listed statements hold up factually: Russia has indeed occupied parts of the Luhansk and Donetsk regions (together known as the Donbas); the current full-scale war did begin in February 2022; and Russia’s invasion has widely been understood as partly motivated by a desire to prevent Ukraine’s further integration into Western institutions like NATO and the EU. However, the specific claim that Crimea was “taken over… during the current war” is factually incorrect, since Russia had already annexed Crimea years earlier, in 2014 — well before the 2022 full-scale invasion began — making this statement the one that is inaccurate among the four.
Q185. The retreating South-West Monsoon brings rain in which part of India?
(A) North-Western part
(B) North-Eastern part
(C) Eastern part of Peninsular India
(D) Western part of Peninsular India
Answer: (C) Eastern part of Peninsular India
Explanation: As the South-West Monsoon withdraws from India during the October-to-December period (a phase often called the “retreating” or “north-east” monsoon), the retreating winds pass back over the Bay of Bengal, picking up significant moisture along the way, which they then deposit as substantial rainfall specifically along the eastern coastal areas of Peninsular India — particularly the Coromandel Coast covering Tamil Nadu and parts of coastal Andhra Pradesh — a regional rainfall pattern distinct from the north-western, north-eastern, or western parts of the Peninsula, which do not receive this same retreating-monsoon rainfall boost.
Q186. Who wrote the book ‘Gandhi versus Lenin’?
(A) S.A. Dange
(B) R.B. Lotwala
(C) R.S. Nimbkar
(D) R.V. Nadkarni
Answer: (A) S.A. Dange
Explanation: S.A. Dange (Shripad Amrit Dange), recognized as one of the earliest and most prominent pioneers of the communist movement within India, authored the influential political pamphlet “Gandhi vs. Lenin” in 1921, in which he critically compared and contrasted Gandhi’s non-violent, reformist approach to political change with the more radical, revolutionary Marxist-Leninist ideology associated with the recent Russian Revolution — a specific and historically significant authorship credited to Dange rather than to the other early Indian communist or labour figures listed.
Q187. Which one of the following animals is not depicted on the Harappan seal?
(A) Bull
(B) Elephant
(C) Sheep
(D) Horse
Answer: (D) Horse
Explanation: Archaeological seals recovered from Harappan (Indus Valley Civilization) sites frequently depict a recurring set of animals, including the bull, elephant, rhinoceros, tiger, buffalo, and the enigmatic “unicorn” motif that appears especially often. Notably, however, depictions or physical remains of the horse are essentially absent (or, at best, extremely disputed and doubtful) in genuine mature Harappan-era artifacts, a curious gap that scholars often specifically cite as one of the distinguishing archaeological features separating the Indus Valley Civilization from other, later, horse-using cultures in the region.
Q188. Which one of the following is not located in West Bengal?
(A) Singalila National Park
(B) Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) NamthingPokhari Biodiversity Heritage Site
(D) Manas Biosphere Reserve
Answer: (D) Manas Biosphere Reserve
Explanation: Among the natural or protected areas listed, the Manas Biosphere Reserve is actually located in the state of Assam, not West Bengal, making it the one option that does NOT belong to West Bengal in this question. By contrast, Singalila National Park, Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary, and the Namthing Pokhari Biodiversity Heritage Site are all genuinely located within West Bengal, primarily concentrated in and around the Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts.
Q189. Which Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during a National Emergency under Article 359?
(A) Articles 19 and 32
(B) Articles 14 and 15
(C) Articles 20 and 21
(D) All are right.
Answer: (C) Articles 20 and 21
Explanation: Following the 44th Constitutional Amendment of 1978 — introduced specifically to prevent future misuse of Emergency powers of the kind seen during the 1975-77 Emergency period — Articles 20 (which protects individuals from certain types of unfair prosecution or punishment) and 21 (which protects the fundamental right to life and personal liberty) were specifically made non-suspendable, meaning they remain protected and enforceable even during a declared National Emergency. This is different from Article 19 (which CAN still be validly suspended during an Emergency) and Articles 14/15 (which can also be effectively restricted through specific Presidential orders issued under Article 359), making Articles 20 and 21 uniquely protected among India’s fundamental rights.
Q190. Which of the following Indian states does not share the boundary with West Bengal?
(A) Sikkim
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Assam
Answer: (C) Chhattisgarh
Explanation: Examining India’s actual state boundaries, West Bengal shares physical borders with five neighbouring Indian states — Sikkim, Assam, Jharkhand, Bihar, and Odisha — along with an international border with Bangladesh and Nepal/Bhutan in parts. Chhattisgarh, however, does not share any direct boundary with West Bengal, since other states (like Jharkhand and Odisha) lie geographically in between them, making Chhattisgarh the correct answer to this “which state does NOT share a boundary” question.
Q191. Resistance of a uniform metal wire of length 1 m and cross-sectional area 1 cm² is 10 Ω. Resistivity of the wire is
(A) 1/10 Ω cm
(B) 1 Ω cm
(C) 10 Ω cm
(D) 100 Ω cm
Answer: (A) 1/10 Ω cm
Explanation: Shortcut: apply the standard resistivity formula directly rather than deriving it from first principles: resistivity ρ = (Resistance × Cross-sectional Area) ÷ Length = R·A/L. First convert the given cross-sectional area into consistent SI units: 1 cm² equals 10⁻⁴ m². Substituting the given values: ρ = (10 Ω × 10⁻⁴ m²) ÷ 1 m = 10⁻³ Ω·m. Since 1 Ω·m is equivalent to 100 Ω·cm (because 1 m = 100 cm, and the area conversion involves this factor squared cancelling appropriately in the resistivity formula), converting 10⁻³ Ω·m gives 0.1 Ω·cm, which is the same as 1/10 Ω·cm — solved through careful, methodical unit conversion rather than memorizing a shortcut number.
Q192. With reference to Cyclone which of the following statements is/are correct? (I) The formation of a cyclone is caused by difference in air pressure. (II) Most of the cyclones develop over warm ocean waters in the tropical regions. (III) The Eye of the Cyclone has dense cloud cover and the lowest temperature. Select the answer using the codes given below:
(A) (II) only
(B) (I), (II) and (III)
(C) (II) and (III)
(D) (III) only
Answer: (A) (II) only
Explanation: Evaluating each statement about cyclones on its own scientific merits: Statement (I) oversimplifies matters by attributing cyclone FORMATION directly to air pressure differences alone — in reality, the actual initiating causes are warm ocean surface temperatures, high humidity, and atmospheric instability, with the pressure gradient being more of a resulting/sustaining feature rather than the root initiating cause, making statement (I) not fully accurate. Statement (II) is scientifically correct, since tropical cyclones do specifically require warm tropical ocean waters (typically above about 26.5°C) to form and intensify. Statement (III), however, is factually incorrect, since the “eye” of a cyclone is actually a relatively calm, clear-skied region with the WARMEST temperatures in the entire storm system (due to sinking, compressing air), rather than having dense cloud cover or being the coldest part as claimed. With only statement (II) holding up as fully correct, “(II) only” is the right selection.
Q193. Which of the following is a reason that driving rapid growth of data centers in India?
(A) Lax environmental enforcement
(B) Strict data localization regulations (DPDP Act 2023)
(C) Cheap electricity
(D) Deterioration in Indo-US relation
Answer: (B) Strict data localization regulations (DPDP Act 2023)
Explanation: The rapid expansion of data centres across India in recent years has been driven by several converging factors, chief among them being strict data localization requirements introduced under regulations like the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 (which mandate that certain categories of data be physically stored within India), alongside broader trends like increasing digitalisation, growing cloud computing adoption, rising AI usage, and a rapidly expanding internet user base. Cheap electricity, by contrast, is not generally regarded as a particular competitive advantage that India holds compared to many other countries actively competing for data centre investment, making the regulatory/data-localization driver the more accurate answer among the given options.
Q194. The leader of the Tana Bhagat movement was
(A) Sidho Majhi
(B) Birsa Munda
(C) Jatra Oraon
(D) Bhai Mukund
Answer: (C) Jatra Oraon
Explanation: The Tana Bhagat Movement, which began in 1914 specifically among the Oraon tribal community of present-day Jharkhand, combined religious reform with anti-colonial political resistance, and was founded and led by Jatra Oraon (also known by the honorific “Jatra Bhagat”); the movement later evolved to closely align itself with the broader Gandhian tradition of non-violent civil resistance, a leadership role and origin specifically attributed to Jatra Oraon rather than to the other tribal leaders listed, who are associated with entirely separate movements in different regions.
Q195. Which of the following ape(s) is/are genetically closest to the modern humans (Homo sapiens)?
(A) Chimpanzee and Bonobo
(B) Gorilla
(C) Orangutan
(D) Gibbon
Answer: (A) Chimpanzee and Bonobo
Explanation: Comparative genomic studies have established that modern humans (Homo sapiens) share an extraordinarily high degree of DNA similarity — roughly 98.7% to 99% — specifically with chimpanzees and bonobos, making these two ape species humanity’s closest living genetic relatives among the great apes. Gorillas are understood to have evolutionarily diverged from the human lineage somewhat earlier than chimpanzees/bonobos did, while orangutans and gibbons diverged earlier still, making them progressively more distant relatives in comparison, rather than being as closely related as chimpanzees and bonobos are.
Q196. “Having four equal sides is a necessary condition for a quadrilateral to be a square, but it is not sufficient.” This means:
(A) A quadrilateral cannot be square unless it has four equal sides, but having four equal sides doesn’t guarantee a quadrilateral to be a square.
(B) No quadrilateral with four equal sides is a square.
(C) For a quadrilateral to be a square, all four sides cannot be equal.
(D) In Mathematics, equality of sides is unrelated to the condition for a quadrilateral to be a square.
Answer: (A) A quadrilateral cannot be square unless it has four equal sides, but having four equal sides doesn’t guarantee a quadrilateral to be a square.
Explanation: For a quadrilateral to qualify geometrically as a true square, it must simultaneously satisfy two separate conditions: having all four sides of equal length, AND having all four internal angles equal to exactly 90 degrees (right angles). Having four equal sides alone is therefore a NECESSARY condition (a square cannot exist without it) but is not SUFFICIENT by itself to guarantee squareness, since a rhombus, for example, also has four equal sides but generally lacks right angles and is therefore not a square. This logical relationship is precisely what option A expresses: a quadrilateral cannot be a square without equal sides, but simply having equal sides does not automatically make it one.
Q197. Banu Mushtaq and Deepa Bhasthi won ‘International Booker Prize’ for ‘Heart Lamp’ in 2025 while David Szalay has won the Booker Prize in 2025 for his novel ‘Flesh’. What is the difference between the two prizes?
(A) They are the same.
(B) The nomenclature changed since 2011.
(C) Booker Prize is for the books written in English while ‘International Booker Prize’ is for the books written in other languages and translated in English.
(D) ‘International Booker Prize’ is given to writers from Asia and Africa.
Answer: (C) Booker Prize is for the books written in English while ‘International Booker Prize’ is for the books written in other languages and translated in English.
Explanation: The distinction between the Booker Prize and the International Booker Prize lies specifically in the original language and nationality requirements of the eligible work: the (regular) Booker Prize is awarded to a novel that was originally written in the English language (and published in the UK or Ireland), whereas the International Booker Prize is specifically awarded to a notable work of fiction that was originally written in a language OTHER than English but has since been translated into English, with the prize money in this case being formally shared between the original author and the translator responsible for the English version — a structural and eligibility-based difference distinct from claims that the prizes are identical, that the naming simply changed at some point, or that the International award is restricted only to writers from Asia and Africa specifically.
Q198. Dependency Ratio of a country is
(A) Ratio of Imports to Gross Domestic Product.
(B) Ratio of Foreign Direct Investment to Total Investment.
(C) Ratio of Non-working Age Population to Working Age Population.
(D) Ratio of Government Expenditure to National Income.
Answer: (C) Ratio of Non-working Age Population to Working Age Population.
Explanation: Shortcut: rather than trying to derive the Dependency Ratio formula from an abstract definition, simply recall and apply the standard demographic formula directly: Dependency Ratio = [Population aged 0–14 years, plus Population aged 65 years and above] ÷ [Population aged 15–64 years, i.e., the working-age population] × 100. This ratio essentially measures how large the economically “dependent” (non-working-age) population is relative to those of working age who must economically support them, distinguishing this specific demographic/economic concept from unrelated measures like import-to-GDP ratios, FDI-to-investment ratios, or government-spending ratios.
Q199. A group of 630 children seated in rows for a group photo session. Each row contains three less children than the row in front of it. Which one of the following number of rows is not possible?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: (D) 6
Explanation: Shortcut: model the seating arrangement as an arithmetic progression (AP), where if the front row has ‘a’ children, each subsequent row has 3 fewer children than the row in front of it, and the total across all rows must sum to exactly 630. For a given number of rows ‘n’, the sum of an AP can be expressed as: n×a − 3×[n(n−1)/2] = 630. Testing this formula for each candidate number of rows: with 3 rows, solving gives a whole-number value of a = 213 (valid); with 4 rows, a = 162 (valid); with 5 rows, a = 132 (valid); but with 6 rows, solving the same equation gives a = 112.5, which is NOT a whole number — since the number of children in the front row must logically be a whole number, 6 rows is the one option that is mathematically impossible, making it the correct answer to this “which is NOT possible” question.
Q200. “If a person is highly educated, then he earns well.” Then which of the following options is necessarily correct?
(A) Suman earns well, so he is highly educated.
(B) Illiterate people cannot earn well.
(C) All persons with good income must be highly educated.
(D) All persons with high education has good earnings.
Answer: (D) All persons with high education has good earnings.
Explanation: Shortcut: treat the given sentence as a direct logical implication of the form “If P, then Q” (Highly Educated → Earns Well), and recall that in formal logic, restating this SAME implication (i.e., “all highly educated persons earn well,” as given in option D) is the only conclusion that is automatically, necessarily true by definition — it is simply a rewording of the original premise itself. By contrast, concluding the REVERSE (that earning well implies being highly educated, as in option A) commits the classic logical fallacy of “affirming the consequent,” and concluding the CONVERSE (that good income implies high education, as in option C) is similarly a logically invalid inference; option B introduces an entirely unrelated and unsupported claim about illiterate people that the original statement says nothing about at all.